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UPSC परीक्षा ​: समसमायिकी वस्तुनिष्ठ प्रश्न, Hindi Current Affairs MCQ - 26 July 2018

IAS EXAM


UPSC परीक्षा ​: समसमायिकी वस्तुनिष्ठ प्रश्न, Hindi Current Affairs MCQ - 26 July 2018


Q1. राष्ट्रीय अर्टिफिशियल इंटेलिजेंस (National Artificial Intelligence) मिशन के बारे में निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन सत्य है?

1) आर्टिफिशियल इंटेलिजेंस पर राष्ट्रीय रणनीति इस पर ध्यान केंद्रित करती है: हेल्थकेयर, कृषि, शिक्षा, स्मार्ट शहरों और बुनियादी ढांचे, स्मार्ट गतिशीलता और परिवहन।
2) एक टास्क फोर्स विभिन्न क्षेत्रों में विकास के लिए एआई (AI) का लाभ उठाने की संभावनाओं का पता लगाएगा। यह सरकारी उद्योग और अनुसंधान, संस्थानों के लिए ठोस और कार्यान्वयन योग्य सिफारिशें प्रस्तुत करेगा।
3) इलेक्ट्रानिक्स और सूचना प्रौद्योगिकी मंत्रालय (Ministry of Electronics and information technology) ने भारत के आर्थिक परिवर्तन के लिए आर्टिफिशियल इंटेलिजेंस (AI) पर टास्क फोर्स का गठन किया है।

(a) 1 और 2
(b) 2 और 3
(c) केवल 3
(d) उपर्युक्त सभी

Q2. मिनी बे, नील द्वीप और बुनियादाबाद (Minnie bay, Neil Iasland and Buniyadabad) उन क्षेत्रों को संदर्भित करता है जहां तटीय पुलिस स्टेशनों को हाल ही में मंजूरी दे दी गई है। ये द्वीप निम्नलिखित द्वीप समूहों में से एक का हिस्सा हैं:

(a) लक्षद्वीप द्वीप समूह (Lakshadweep Islands)
(b) अंडमान और निकोबार द्वीप (Andaman & Nicobar islands)
(c) दमन और दीव (Daman & Diu)
(d) दादर और नगर हवेली (Dadra & Nagar haveli)

Q3. विशेषाधिकार गति के संबंध में निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन सत्य नहीं है?

1) स्पीकर के लिए विशेषाधिकार समिति को विशेषाधिकार के मामले को संदर्भित करना अनिवार्य है।
2) नागरिक प्रक्रिया संहिता (CPC) के कानूनों के तहत विशेषाधिकार का उल्लंघन दंडनीय है।

(a) केवल 1
(b) केवल 2
(c) दोनों सही
(d) दोनों गलत

Q4. निम्नलिखित में से कौन सी साइटें (sites) और हाल ही में स्वीकृत संबंधित परमाणु ऊर्जा संयंत्र सही ढंग से मेल खाते हैं:

1) आंध्र प्रदेश: कोवाडा (Andhra Pradesh :kovvada)
2) महाराष्ट्र: हरिपुर (Maharashtra :Haripur)
3) गुजरात: छाया मिठी विरडी (Gujarat :ChhayaMithiVirdi)

(a) 1 और 2
(b) केवल 3
(c) 1 और 3
(d) उपर्युक्त सभी

Q5. निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा राष्ट्रीय जैव ईंधन नीति के उद्देश्य हैं:

1) जैव ईंधन उत्पादन के लिए घरेलू फीडस्टॉक की पर्याप्त और निरंतर उपलब्धता सुनिश्चित करना।
2) संपत्ति निर्माण के लिए रोजगार उत्पादन और अपशिष्ट।
3) गेहूं, टूटे चावल इत्यादि जैसे क्षतिग्रस्त अनाज से इथेनॉल का उत्पादन

(a) 1 और 2
(b) केवल 3
(c) 1 और 3
(d) उपर्युक्त सभी

UPSC सामान्य अध्ययन प्रारंभिक एवं मुख्य परीक्षा (Combo) Study Kit

UPSC सामान्य अध्ययन (GS) प्रारंभिक परीक्षा (Pre) पेपर-1 स्टडी किट

UPSC Geo-Scientist and Geologist Exam Papers 2018 : Chemistry Paper - III


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Exam Name : UPSC Geo-Scientist and Geologist Exam 2018

Subject : Chemistry Paper - III

Year : 2018

CHEMISTRY
Paper III

Time Allowed : Three Hours

Maximum Marks : 200

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions.

There are TEN questions divided under TWO Sections.

Candidate has to attempt SIX questions in all.

Question no. 1 in Section A and Question no. 6 in Section B are compulsory. Of the remaining questions in each section candidates have to answer FOUR questions choosing TWO from each section.

The number of marks carried by a question / part is indicated against it.

Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly.

Any page or portion of the page left blank in the answer-book must be clearly struck off. Answers must be written in ENGLISH only.

Neat sketches may be drawn to illustrate answers, wherever required.

Unless otherwise mentioned, symbols and notations have their usual standard meanings. Assume suitable data, if necessary and indicate the same clearly.

SECTION A

Attempt any three questions including question no. 1 which is compulsory.

Q1. Answer all of the questions given below. Give reasons for the following observation :

(a) Phenolphthalein indicator cannot be used in the titration of sodium carbonate with hydrochloric acid solution.
(b) Iodimetric titrations are usually carried out in neutral solutions.
(c) A small amount of magnesium salt is added to the EDTA solution used for the titration of calcium by using Eriochrome Black T indicator.
(d) Source modulation is used in atomic absorption spectroscopy.
(e) Zone broadening is inevitable in column chromatographic analysis.
(f) ICP method is better suited for multielemental analysis than flame atomic absorption method.
(g) Glass pH electrode tends to indicate a pH lower than the actual pH in strongly basic solutions.
(h) Electron capture detector is a selective detector.

Q2. Distinguish between the following :

(a) Co-precipitation and Post-precipitation
(b) Iodimetry and Iodometry
(c) Gas liquid chromatography and High performance liquid chromatography
(d) Proximate analysis and Ultimate analysis
(e) Aniline point and Cloud point
(f) Primary standard and Secondary standard in volumetric analysis

Q3. (a) A mixture of HCl and H3PO4 is titrated with 0.1000 M NaOH. The first end point (methyl red) occurs at 35.00 mL, and the second end point (bromothymol blue) occurs at a total of 50.00 mL. Calculate the millimoles of HCl and H3PO4 present in the solution.
(b) What weight of pyrite ore must be taken for analysis so that the BaSO4 precipitate weight obtained will be equal to one-half that of the percent S in the sample ?
(c) (i) Explain why a wash liquid is an electrolyte in gravimetric analysis.
(ii) Calculate the solubility of silver chloride in 0:1 M NaNO3.
Given : Ksp = 1.0 × 10-10
fAg+ = 0.75 and fCI- = 0.76

Q4. (a) Explain the principles of chelation titration indicators.
(b) Calculate the height equivalent to a theoretical plate, in cm, of a gas chromatographic column of 3 ft length in a chromatographic analysis.
Given tR = 52.3 mm and WB = 9.0 mm
(c) (i) Calculate the absorbance of a 3.49 x 10-5 M solution of Fe (SCN)2+ complex with maximum absorption at 580 nm. Given :

Molar absorptivity of the complex is
7.00 x 103 L cm-1 mol-1.

(ii) A sample in a 1.0 cm cell is determined with a spectrometer to transmit 80% light at a certain wavelength. If the absorptivity of this substance at this wavelength is 2.0, what is the concentration of the substance ?

Q5.(a) Describe the role of indicator electrode in potentiometry.
(b) An ore was analyzed for manganese content by converting the manganese to Mn304 and weighed. If a 1.52 g sample yields Mn304 weighing 0.126 g, what is the percent Mn203 in the sample ?
(c) 0.40 g of an alloy was analyzed for nickel by gravimetric method using dimethyl glyoxime reagent. The weight of the nickel as glyoximate after washing and drying comes to a constant weight of 0.285 g. Calculate the percentage of nickel in the alloy. (M.Wt. of nickel dimethyl glyoximate = 290.93)

SECTION B

Attempt any three questions including question no. 6 which is compulsory.

Q6. Identify compound/intermediate ‘A’ to T with appropriate stereochemistry (if any) in the following transformations :

Q7. (a) Identify the most reactive alkene of the following when reacted with meta-chloroperbenzoic acid. Justify your answer.

(b) Arrange the following amines in decreasing order of their basicity. Rationalize your answer.

(c) Identify the product of the following transformations. Give the possible mechanism.

(d) Give a synthetic sequence for the following transformation with appropriate reagents and conditions.

(e) Suggest a suitable mechanism for the following transformation.

Q8. (a) Arrange the following carbocations in order of increasing stability. Justify your answer.

(b) Identify an anti-aromatic compound from the following. Rationalise your answer.

(c) Illustrate the following transformation with appropriate reagents and conditions.

(d) Arrange the following carbonyl compounds in order of increasing pKa. Rationalize the assigned order.

(CH3CO)2 CH2, CH3CHO, CH3COCH3, (CH3CO)3CH

(e) The unknown compound 'A' with molecular formula C10H160 adds 2 moles of bromine to give a tetrabromo derivative. It also forms hydrazone, reduces Fehling's solution and absorbs at 200 nm in UV. Compound ‘A’ undergoes retro-aldol reaction with boiling aqueous K2CO3 solution to give acetaldehyde and compound 'B'. The compound 'B' gives positive haloform test and yields acetone and 4-oxopentanoic acid on oxidative ozonolysis. Identify A and B and rationalize your answer.

Q9. (a) Write the structure of the product formed when chlorotriphenylmethane is reacted with metallic silver. Justify your answer.
(b) Identify the product and comment on the stereochemical outcome of the reaction.


(c) Identify the product of the following transformation. Woodward - Hoffmann rule to explain the outcome of the reaction.


(d) Give a synthetic sequence for the following transformation with appropriate reagents and conditions.

(e).


(i) Identify the reactant and the product as aromatic, anti-aromatic and non-aromatic.
(ii) Assion the Assign the reason for appearance of methyl proton of reactant and product at - 4.25 ppm and 21 ppm, respectively.

Q10. (a) 0-H stretching frequency of BHT (2,6-di(tert-butyl)-4-methyl phenol) is observed at 3600 cm-1 as a sharp band, while in paracetamol (p-hydroxy phenylacetamide), it appears as a broad band between 3300 – 3000 cm-1. Why?
(b) The unknown compound having molecular formula C4H20 has absorption band at 1070 cm-1 in IR spectrum. In its 1H NMR spectrum, two multiples are observed with 1:1 ratio. Identify the compound and explain your answer.
(c) Identify the following as per given direction :

(iii). The compound exhibiting odd molecular ion peak in mass spectrum is :

BHT, DDQ, DMF

(d) Identify the organic compound which showed the following spectroscopic data :

UV: lmax 262 nm
IR: Significant absorption bands at 3340, 3000, 1040 cm-1
1
H NMR: d 1.9 (1H, S: exchangeable with D20)
2.9 (2H, t), 3.8 (2H, t), 7.2 - 7.4 (4H, m)
13C NMR: d 39, 62, 126, 128, 129, 139
Mass : m/z 122, 92, 91

Click Here to Download PDF Chemistry Paper- III

UPSC Geo-Scientist and Geologist Exam Papers 2018 : Chemistry Paper - II


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Exam Name : UPSC Geo-Scientist and Geologist Exam 2018

Subject : Chemistry Paper - II

Year : 2018

CHEMISTRY
Paper II

ITime Allowed : Three Hours

Maximum Marks : 200

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions.

There are FIFTEEN questions divided under THREE Sections.

Candidate has to attempt TEN questions in all.

The ONLY question in Section A is compulsory.

The number of marks carried by a question / part is indicated against it.

Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly.

Any page or portion of the page left blank in the answer-book must be clearly struck off. Answers must be written in ENGLISH only.

Neat sketches may be drawn to illustrate answers, wherever required.

Unless otherwise mentioned, symbols and notations have their usual standard meanings. Assume suitable data, if necessary and indicate the same clearly.

Some useful fundamental constants and conversion factors

NA = 6.022 x1023 mol-1
Rydberg constant = 2.178x10-18 J
c = 2.998 x108 ms-1
kb = 1.38x10-23 J K-1
e = 1.602x10-19 C
me = 9.109x10-31 kg
F = 96485 C mol-1
R = 8.314 J K-1 mol-1
h = 6.626 X10-34 J s
p = 3.142
1 amu = 1.66x10-27 kg
1 cal = 4.184 J
1 J = 1 kg m2 s-2
1 Å = 10-8 cm = 10-10 m = 0.1 nm = 100 pm
1 atm = 760 torr = 1.01325x105 Pa
1 bar = 1x105 Pa = 0.9869 atm
1 eV = 1.602x10-19 J
1 L atm = 101:34 J

SECTION A

1. Answer all of the following:

(a) At what temperature will the average speed of oxygen molecules be equal to that of hydrogen molecules at 20 K?
(b) The fugacity (f) of a real gas will be greater than its observed pressure (P) when intermolecular repulsive interactions are dominant. Justify with reason.
(c) At room temperature, liquid water wets solid glass surface, but liquid mercury does not. Explain why.
(d) Estimate the number of particles per unit cell of an fcc crystal.
(e) In a Joule-Thomson experiment, the temperature of the gas decreases. What will be the sign of Joule-Thomson coefficient? Give reason.
(f) Show that DG = DA, for isothermal expansion of fixed amount of ideal gas.
(g) We know
Kp = exp(-DGo/RT)
(Symbols have their usual meanings)

(i) What are the units in SI system) of Kp, and DGo?
(ii) Does the Kp value of a chemical reaction depend on temperature of reaction at equilibrium and mode of stoichiometric representation of the chemical reaction?

(h) At 25 °C, pH of 10-8 mol L-1 aqueous HCl solution is less than 7.0. Justify with reason.
(i) Boiling point of liquid depends on superincumbent pressure, not on external pressure. Justify with definition of boiling point of liquid.
(j) For the reaction

I- (aq) + H2O2 (aq) → IO- (aq) +H2O(1)
predict whether the reaction rate will be increased, decreased or unchanged with increase of ionic strength of the solution. Give reason(s) in support of your answer.

(k) The spontaneous adsorption of gas on a solid surface at constant pressure and temperature is an exothermic process. Give reasons with the help of principles of thermodynamics.
(l) Conductivity of an ionic solution does not depend on its mass, but depends on its temperature. Explain with reasons.
(m) The following photochemical reaction occurs when UV light is exposed to anthracene (C14H10) in benzene medium :

2 C14H10 + hv → C28H20

What would be the expected quantum yield? The observed quantum yield is 0.5. How will you explain it?
(n) Show that the function yn = N sin (npx / L) satisfies the Schrödinger equation for a particle in a one-dimensional box with a potential function V(x) equal to zero for 0 < x < L and infinity elsewhere. What is the eigenvalue?
(o) Which transition of the following corresponds to the second line of the Balmer spectrum?

(i) 4p → 3s
(ii) 2s → 4p
(iii) 3d → 2p
(iv) 4d → 2p
(v) 4d → 3p
Give reasons.

(p) Determine the number of normal modes for vibrational motion of each of the following molecules :

(i) Dinitrogen
(ii) Carbon dioxide
(ii) Water
(iv) Acetylene
(v) Ethylene

SECTION-B

Attempt any six questions :

2. (a) For fixed mass of an ideal gas, what would be the nature of the plot of In (P/bar) against In (V/L) at constant temperature? Give reason(s) in support of your answer.
(b) Find the Boyle temperature of He gas which obeys the van der Waals gas equation. Given a = 0.0341 atm dm6 mol-2 and b = 2.38x10-2 dm3 mol-1.

4. 3.0 mol H2 (g) and 1.0 mol N2(g) are in two compartments separated by a partition. The volume and temperature of both the compartments are the same. What will be the change in entropy (DS) of the system when the partition is removed and allowed to free mixing of gases? Assume that two gases behave ideally.

5. The vapour pressure of benzene is 53.3 kPa at 60.6 °C, but it lowers to 51.5 kPa when 19.0 g of a non-volatile organic compound is dissolved in 500.0 g benzene. Calculate the molar mass of the organic compound, taking the molar mass of benzene as 78.0 g.

6. The decomposition of HI (g) to H2 (g) and I2 (g) is a second-order reaction. The half-life of the reaction is found to be 13.5 min, when the initial pressure of HI (g) is 1.0 bar.

(a) Calculate the half-life when the initial pressure of HI (g) is 0-1 bar.
(b) Calculate the reaction time required for the pressure of HI (g) to fall from 1.0 bar to 0.1 bar.

7. The Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle (HUP) can be given mathematically as

For a particle trapped in a one-dimensional box of length L, the maximum value of Dx is L. Calculate the minimum value of Dpx for an electron trapped in a linear molecule of length L = 3:0 nm and clearly state the units.

8. (a) Find the inter-planar distance between two successive 110-planes of a bcc crystal having unit cell edge length as 100.0 pm.
(b) Write down the expression of the 'Langmuir adsorption isotherm' in terms of the fraction of surface sites covered (0) and equilibrium pressure (P) of the adsorbed gas at constant temperature. How would you determine the constant involved in this equation?

9. (a) With increase of temperature of HCl (aq) solution, the transport number of the H+ ion decreases, though its velocity increases. Explain with reason(s).
(b) The conductivity of KCl04 (aq) solution at 25°C is 13.78 mS m-1 when its concentration is 1.0 mmol dm-3. Calculate its molar conductivity.

10. (a) The anti-Stokes lines of the pure rotational Raman spectrum of a molecule are roughly of the same intensity as the Stokes lines, but anti-Stokes lines of the vibrational Raman spectrum are generally much weaker than the Stokes lines. Account for the observation.
(b) In the pure rotational Raman spectrum of a diatomic molecule, the first three transitions are observed at 26.52 cm-1, 44.20 cm-1 and 61.88 cm-1.

(i) Calculate the rotational constant B of the molecule.
(ii) What other information would you need to calculate the equilibrium bond length of the molecule? Explain your answer.

SECTION-C
Attempt any three questions :

(b) Obtain the expression of e.m.f (E) of the following galvanic cell in terms of its standard e.m.f. (E°), molality of aqueous solution (m) of the electrolyte and its mean ionic activity coefficient (g+) :

Zn | ZnCl2 (aq, m) | AgCl, Ag

(c) The electronic spectrum of a diatomic molecule A, shows a series of bands converging to a continuum at 200 nm. One of the atoms formed at 200 nm is in an excited state, which lies 8000 cm-1 above its ground state. Calculate the bond dissociation energy of A2.

12. (a) Which of the following molecules may show an infrared vibrational absorption spectrum?

(i) C12
(ii) HCI
(iii) NH3
(iv) CO2
(v) CH4

(b) If the two methyl proton resonances in the proton NMR spectrum of methyl acetate (CH3COOCH3) are 320 Hz apart in an instrument operating at 200 MHz, calculate the difference in frequency (Hz) for the two signals in the spectrum of an instrument operating at 500 MHz.
(c) By predicting the appearance of their proton NMR spectra, show how 1,3,5 trinitrobenzene can be distinguished from 1,2,4-trinitrobenzene. Sketch the low resolution NMR spectrum of each molecule.
(d) How would you distinguish between n → p* and p p* transitions in a carbonyl compound? Give the differences, including effect of increasing solvent polarity.

13. (a) Calculate the average internal energy per molecule of oxygen gas at 300 K, using 'principle of equipartition of energy'.
(b) Deduce the reduced equation of state for the van der Waals gas. Mention its significance.

14. (a) Why is glycerol more viscous than water?
(b) Arrange the following molecules in order of their increasing acid strength, giving reason :

(i) H3PO4, H3PO3 and H3PO2
(ii) CH3COOH and CF3COOH

(d) Evaluate the commutator [ x, Px].

15. (a) If we mix 700 mL of ethanol with 30.0 mL of water at normal pressure and temperature, then the total volume will be less than 100.0 mL. Explain why.

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UPSC Geo-Scientist and Geologist Exam Papers 2018 : Chemistry Paper - I


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Exam Name : UPSC Geo-Scientist and Geologist Exam 2018

Subject : Chemistry Paper - I

Year : 2018

CHEMISTRY
Paper I

ITime Allowed : Three Hours

Maximum Marks : 200

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions.

There are ELEVEN questions divided under SIX Sections.

Candidate has to attempt SIX questions in all.

The ONLY question in Section A is compulsory.

Out of the remaining TEN questions, FIVE questions are to be attempted choosing ONE from each Section.

The number of marks carried by a question / part is indicated against it.

Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly.

Any page or portion of the page left blank in the answer-book must be clearly struck off. Answers must be written in ENGLISH only.

Neat sketches may be drawn to illustrate answers, wherever required.

Unless otherwise mentioned, symbols and notations have their usual standard meanings. Assume suitable data, if necessary and indicate the same clearly.

SECTION 'A'

1. Answer all of the following:

1. (a) How lithium hydride can be prepared ? Write the product of the reaction between lithium hydride and carbon dioxide. Whether it (LiH) is electrovalent or covalent
compound ? Explain.
1. (b) Write IUPAC nomenclature of the following coordination compounds :

(i) [CoCl(CN)(NO2) (NH3)3]
(ii) [Pt(Py)4](PtCl4]

1. (c) A complex with the formula CoCl2-4NH; gives precipitate with AgNO3 with reference to one chloride ion. Answer the following:

(i) What is the primary valency of cobalt ?
(ii) What is the secondary valency of cobalt ?
(iii) Draw the possible geometrical isomers of the compound.

1. (d) All Bronsted-Lowry acids are Lewis acids also. But all Lewis acids are not Bronsted-Lowry acids. Explain.
1.(e) Iodine and bromine are added to a solution containing I and Br ions. What reaction would occur ? Explain.

The electrode potentials for the reactions are :
I2 + 2e- → 2I-, E° = +0.54 V
Br2 + 2e- → 2Br-, E° = +1.08 V

1. (f) What is 18-electron rule ? Using the 18-electron rule predict the 'n' value for the following compounds :

(i) [h6 (C6H6) Cr(CO)n]
(ii) [h4 (C4H4)2 Mn(Cl)(CO)n]

1. (g) A wooden article of old age shows 40% as much 14C activity as a fresh piece of wood. Calculate the age of the article.

(t1/2 of 14C = 5760 years)

1. (h) What is the usual order of preference of the alkali metal ions for a cation exchanging resin ? Explain.
1. (i) Draw the structure of borazine. With the help of its reaction with HCl, explain why chemical properties of borazine are quite different from those of benzene.
1. (j) Atomic radii of two of the lanthanides are considerably higher than the other lanthanides. Identify those two lanthanides and explain the observation.

SECTION ‘B'
(Attempt any one question)

2. (a) Define the electron affinity. Explain the general trends of electron affinity in periodic table. Electron affinities of beryllium, magnesium, calcium and nitrogen are practically close to zero. Explain.
2. (b) Explain the basicities of the following acids and justify the answer by drawing the structures :

(i) Orthophosphoric acid
(ii) Pyrophosphoric acid
(iii) Metaphosphoric acid

2. (c) Write the product(s) formed from the following reactions :

(i) 3PC13 + S03
(ii) HPO4 + H20 →
(iii) TeO2 + 2SeF4
(iv) 8HI + H2SO4
(v) PC15 + H20 →

3. (a) Write the important points of VSEPR theory. Draw the shape of the following molecules by using VSEPR theory :

(i) SF4
(ii) XeOF4
(iii) IF5

3. (b) Draw the Born-Haber Cycle for the formation of NaCl crystal and write the two important uses of the Cycle.
3. (c) Draw the molecular orbital energy level diagrams for nitric oxide and carbon monoxide. Explain the magnetic behaviour of the molecules also.

SECTION ‘C
(Attempt any one question)

4. (a) Calculate ground state terms for the following electronic configurations :

(i) d3
(ii) d4
(iii) d8
(iv) f3 and
(v) f7

4. (b) Arrange the following metal compounds in the increasing order of their molar extinction coefficient values. Explain the reasons.

KMnO4, [Co(NH3)6,]2+, [MnBr4]2- and [CoC14]2-

4. (c) Calculate the crystal field stabilization energy value for the complex [Cr(NH3)6]2+. The crystal field splitting energy and pairing energy are found to be 150 k.J mol-1 and 120 k.J mol-1 respectively.

5. (a) What is Jahn-Teller effect? Calculate Jahn-Teller stabilization energy for Cu(II) complex in an octahedral field.
5. (b) What is premature end point? Explain this with reference to ferrous and dichromate titration in acidic medium.
5. (c) Draw the basicity order of CH-3, NH-2, OH- and F- anions. Justify your answer.

SECTION ‘D'
(Attempt any one question)

6. (a) Balance the following equation by ion-electron method in basic medium :

P4 → H2PO2- + PH3

6. (b) Distinguish between disproportionation and comproportionation reactions. Classify the following reactions into disproportionation or comproportionation reactions. Explain the reasons.

(i) 3Cl2 + 6NaOH → NaClO3 + 5NaCl + 3H20
(ii) 3HCIO2 → 2HCIO3 + HCI
(iii) AgCl2 + Ag → 2AgCl

6. (c) Write oxidation half reaction and reduction half reaction and calculate EMF of the following cell at 298 K:

Fe(s)/Fe2+(aq)(0.001 M)//H+(aq)(1 M)/H2(g)(l atm), Pt.
Standard reduction potentials of Fe2+/Fe= -0.44 V and H+ / 1/2 H2 = 0.0 V.

7. (a) Explain band theory with an example. Using the band theory distinguish between conductors, semiconductors and insulators.
7. (b) Give the synthesis of the mixed metal carbonyl nitrosyls from the following compounds :

(i) C5H5Mo(CO)3H and
(ii) CrCl3 and Na+ C5H5-

7. (c) Explain Structure and Bonding of ferrocene.

SECTION ‘E
(Attempt any one question)

8. (a) Briefly discuss the 'shell model of nucleus and hence explain the concept of ‘magic numbers' for the stability of nucleus.
8. (b) Explain the concept of Nuclear Binding Energy and hence the binding energy curve. How does the curve give information about nuclear fission and nuclear fusion as energy source.
8. (c) What are x and y in the following nuclear reactions ? Justify their formation.

9. (a) What happens, when the following salts are strongly heated ? Give balanced equations.

(i) Li2CO3
(ii) LiNO3
(iii) MgCO3
(iv) Mg(NO3)2
(v) NaNO3
(vi) Na2CO3

From these reactions, can you suggest (with reasons) a relationship between any two of these metal ions ? Suggest one more property in favour of this relationship.

9.(b) Write the formula and draw the structure of the compound which is formed when Be(OH)2 is evaporated with acetic acid.
9.(c) Calculate the effective nuclear charge (Zeff) for the last electron in sodium (Na) atom. (Atomic number of Na= 11)

SECTION ‘F
(Attempt any one question)

10. (a) State the method of preparation of diborane from BF3. Draw its structure and discuss its bonding. What happens when diborane is reacted with (i) water (ii) excess ammonia at low temperature.
10. (b) Give one example each of (i) orthosilicate (ii) pyrosilicate (iii) cyclic silicate and (iv) chain silicate and draw their structures.

11. (a) Calculate the magnetic moment of Ce3+(f1) and Yb3+(f13) considering spin-orbit coupling. Comment on the difference (if any) in the ground. State terms and values of the moment, of the two ions.

11. (b) Explain why

(i) Atomic radii of Zr and Hf are virtually identical.
(ii) The most common oxidation state of Cu is +2 but that of Ag is +1.
(iii) Gold forms Au- ion under suitable conditions but Cu or Ag does not.

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UPSC Geo-Scientist and Geologist Exam Papers 2018 : Geo-Physics Paper - III


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Exam Name : UPSC Geo-Scientist and Geologist Exam 2018

Subject : Geophysics Paper - III

Year : 2018

GEOPHYSICS
Paper III

ITime Allowed : Three Hours

Maximum Marks : 200

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions.

There are TEN questions divided under TWO Sections.

Candidate has to attempt SIX questions in all.

Questions No. 1 and 6 are compulsory.

Out of the remaining EIGHT questions, FOUR questions are to be attempted choosing TWO from each Section.

The number of marks carried by a question / part is indicated against it.

Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly.

Any page or portion of the page left blank in the answer-book must be clearly struck off. Answers must be written in ENGLISH only.

Neat sketches may be drawn to illustrate answers, wherever required.

Unless otherwise mentioned, symbols and notations have their usual standard meanings. Assume suitable data, if necessary and indicate the same clearly.

Constants which may be needed :

Kepler's constant = 3.986004418 105 km3s-2
Mean radius of Earth = 6378 km
Mass of electron (me) = 9.11 x 10-31 kg
Charge of electron (e) = 1-602 x 10-19 C
Planck's constant (h) = 6.62 x 10-34 J-sec
Boltzmann's constant (k) = 1-38 x 10-23 J/K

SECTION A

Q1. (a) Explain electromagnetic energy and its two units in which electromagnetic wavelength is measured.

(b) (i) Describe three principal applications of the seismic method.
(ii) What is a notch filter and what is its application ?
(c). Explain passive and active remote sensing with suitable examples.
(d). Calculate seismic data fold, if number of channels in a streamer is 120, shot and group interval is 25 m.
(e). Describe reflectance, absorbance and transmittance with balance equation.
(f) Describe satellite orbit and swath in detail. On which factors does orbit selection depend ?
(g) What do you mean by deconvolution ? Find out the convolution of two signals given below :
x1 (n) = [0, 1, 2, 3]
x2 (n) = [-1,-1, 3, 4]
(h) What is Radioactive series ? How many steps (a and b) emission take place from parent 92/233 U to stable daughter product 82Pb ?

Q2. (a) (i) What is the energy of a photon with a wavelength of 400 nm ?
(ii) List out four weather satellites.
(iii) Explain the Stefan-Boltzmann law of radiation.

(b). Describe ghost and peg-leg in seismic data with neat sketch diagram.
(ii) Explain the principle of seismic reflection data acquisition in marine environment with neat sketch diagram.

(c) (i) Discuss ocean basin, ocean ridge and ocean trench with suitable examples.
(ii) What is radiometric age dating ? How can you calculate the absolute age of a rock ?

Q3. (a) (i) Distinguish between satellite image and map.
(ii) What are the percentages of incoming natural radiation reflected back, absorbed by the atmosphere, and absorbed by the Earth's surface ?
(iii) Give the values of emissivity of polished metal surface, granite, basalt (rough) and water (pure).

(b) (i) Describe the reflection coefficient. Explain the cases if reflection coefficient is zero, less than zero and one.
(ii) List vibrator sources used in marine survey. (iii) Explain dynamic correction with appropriate equation.

(c) (i) What is nuclear logging ? Name three nuclear logs.
(ii) Draw gamma ray log curve for shale-sand-shale formation. (iii) In a rock formation, the geothermal gradient is 0.022°C/m and the mean annual surface temperature is 20°С. Find out the formation temperature at the formation depth 2440 m.

Q4. (a) (i) Explain interaction mechanism of electromagnetic radiation.
(ii)What are LiDAR and RADAR ? Which type of remote sensing is performed by LiDAR and RADAR ?

(b) Differentiate between CDP and CMP with neat sketch diagram.
(ii) Discuss the common offset gather and the common receiver gather with neat sketch diagram.

(c) Explain how shale volume can be calculated from natural gamma ray log.
(ii) Discuss principle of ringing which occurs in time domain when sharp boundaries are present in the frequency domain.

Q5. (a) (i) Explain geostationary satellite orbits and the sun-synchronous satellite orbits and their applications in remote sensing.
(ii) Which are the sensors used for land use and land cover studies ?

(b) Describe marine seismic data processing flow chart.
(ii) Discuss applications of magnetic method.

(c) Explain induced magnetization and remanent magnetization with examples.
(ii) Explain how and where Eötvös correction applies.

SECTION B

Q6. (a) An X-ray beam of wavelength 0.71 Å is diffracted by a cubic KCl crystal of density 1.99 x 103 kg m-3. Calculate the interplanar spacing for (200) planes and the glancing angle for the second order reflection from these planes. The molecular weight of KCl is 74.6 amu and Avogadro's number is 6.023 x 1026 kg-1 mole-1.
(b) Derive the conditions for light amplification using Einstein's coefficients.
(c) Determine the transition temperature, and the critical field at 4.2 K for a given specimen of a superconductor if the critical fields are 1.41 x 105 and 4.205 x 105 Am-1 at 14.1 K and 12.9 K, respectively.
(d) Calculate the ratio of the current for a forward bias of 0.6 V to the current for the same value of reverse bias applied to a Ge p-n diode at 27°C.
(e) Discuss the working of a satellite communication system with block diagrams.
(f) Obtain the Boolean expression for the output Y in the logic circuit shown in the figure. Simplify the expression and show that the circuit is equivalent to an AND gate with inputs A and B.

(g) If the uncertainty in the position of a moving particle is equal to the wavelength associated with it, show that the uncertainty in its velocity is equal to () times its velocity.
(h) Explain the role of an earth station in satellite communication set-up.

Q7. (a) (i) Differentiate between crystalline and amorphous solids.
(ii) Distinguish between orthorhombic and triclinic crystal systems.
(iii) Calculate the surface density of atoms in the (111) plane of a body-centered cubic structure. Assume that the lattice constant a = 5 Å. In addition, assume the atoms to be hard spheres, with the closest atoms touching each other.
(b) Derive expressions for the voltage gain and the input resistance of an inverting amplifier using an Op-Amp.
(c) Apply Heisenberg's uncertainty principle to explain the following:
(i) Non-existence of electrons within the nucleus.
(ii) Existence of finite zero-point energy.

Q8. (a) What is the mode locking technique of generating short laser pulses ? Discuss its types with diagrams.
(b) Compare the characteristics of CO2 gas laser and Nd-YAG laser with energy level diagrams.
(i) A material has energy levels separated by 1.95 eV. Calculate the temperature at which the population inversion of two levels will be one half. (Given k = 1.38 x 10-23 J/K).
(ii) A particle limited to z-axis has the wave function y(x) = bz between o Szs 2; the wave function y(z) = 0 elsewhere. Find the probability that the particle can be found between z = 0 and z = 0·5. Also find the expectation value <z> of the position of the particle.

Q9. (a) Describe the changes that occur in electrical, magnetic and thermal properties of substances when they change from normal state to superconducting state.
(b) (i) An FET amplifier in the common-source configuration uses a load resistance of 250 k 2. The ac drain resistance of the device is 100 k 2 and the transconductance is 0.5 mA/V. What is the voltage gain of the amplifier ? Calculate the voltage V, in the circuit shown in the figure.
(ii) Discuss quantum mechanically, the problem of one-dimensional linear harmonic oscillator and obtain its eigenvalues. Also write the significance of zero-point energy.

Q10. (a) (i) Discuss the longitudinal mode of resonators.
(ii) If a radar of 1 MW peak power and antenna gain of 1000 irradiates a 1 m2 target with a 10 usec pulse at 1000 km range, what energy density arrives back at the radar and in how much elapsed time? 4+1
(b) (i) Distinguish between active and passive satellites.
(ii) What do you understand by orbit, apogee and perigee of a satellite ?
(c) Explain the design and working principle of an optical fibre.
(ii) A communication system uses 10 km of optical fibre having a loss of 2-3 dB/km. Calculate the out power at the receiving end if the power at input is 400 uW.

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UPSC Geo-Scientist and Geologist Exam Papers 2018 : Geo-Physics Paper - II


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Exam Name : UPSC Geo-Scientist and Geologist Exam 2018

Subject : Geophysics Paper - II

Year : 2018

GEOPHYSICS
Paper II

ITime Allowed : Three Hours

Maximum Marks : 200

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions.

There are TEN questions divided under TWO Sections.

Candidate has to attempt SIX questions in all.

Questions No. 1 and 6 are compulsory.

Out of the remaining EIGHT questions, FOUR questions are to be attempted choosing TWO from each Section.

The number of marks carried by a question / part is indicated against it.

Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly.

Any page or portion of the page left blank in the answer-book must be clearly struck off. Answers must be written in ENGLISH only.

Neat sketches may be drawn to illustrate answers, wherever required.

Unless otherwise mentioned, symbols and notations have their usual standard meanings. Assume suitable data, if necessary and indicate the same clearly.

Physical Constants

Electron rest mass, me = 9.109 x 10-31 kg
Proton rest mass, mp = 1.672x10-27 kg
Neutron rest mass, mn = 1.675 x 10-27 kg
Atomic mass unit (C12 = 12), a.m.u. = 1.661x10-27 kg
Bohr magneton, uB = 9.27x10-24 J/tesla
Nuclear magneton, uN = 5.05x10-27 J/tesla
Boltzmann constant, kB = 1.381x10-23 J/K
Speed of light in vacuum, c = 2.998 x 108 m/s
Electron charge, | e | = 1.602 x 10-19 C
Planck's constant, h = 6.626x10-34 J-s
Avogadro's number, NA = 6.023 x 1023 /mole

1 eV = 1.602 x 10-19 J
Mass of c14 = 14.003242 a.m.u.
Mass of Nl4 = 14.003074 a.m.u.
mp = 139.6 MeV/c2
mu = 105.7 MeV/c2

SECTION—A

1. (a) Define skin depth associated with the penetration of an electromagnetic wave in the Earth. Determine the resistivity of the medium, if an electromagnetic wave of frequency 40 Hz penetrates into the Earth up to a depth of 1006 m. (Consider u = 4px 10-7 H/m)
(b) Define elevation correction in gravity prospecting. Determine the elevation correction factor assuming the slab density p = 2.65 gm/cc.
(c) Show that the Laplace's equation for potential V holds good in an isotropic homogeneous medium when a current of constant frequency (DC) or a very low frequency AC flows in it.
(d) Write down the Wyllie's time-average equation. Compute the porosity in a sandstone reservoir using the above equation considering the following observations :

(i) An interval transit time in the sandstone reservoir was measured as 90 us/ft.
(ii) The acoustic velocity of the rock matrix was 18000 ft/s.
(iii) Fluid transit time was 189 us/ft.

(e) Define multiples. Distinguish between short-path and long-path multiples with the help of a schematic diagram for the case of horizontal beds.

2. (a) Explain the static shift phenomenon affecting the magnetotelluric (MT) apparent resistivity data and discuss its effect on MT impedance phase. Define the subsurface dimensionality as a function of MT impedance tensor.
(b) Derive the expressions for potential and electric fields due to a current dipole placed over a homogeneous ground at a distance r from the measuring point.

3. (a) Explain the concept of 'zero-length spring'. Discuss the principle of operation of astatic type of gravimeter.
(b) Draw a neat sketch explaining the elements of the Earth's magnetic field. Express the magnetic potential V at any point on the surface of the Earth in spherical coordinate system, signifying its internal and external origins.

4. (a) Show the positions of different detectors used in neutron logging tool with respect to a neutron source, making suitable diagrams. Also show the energy range for neutron-thermal neutron log and neutron-epithermal neutron log on the drawing itself.
(b) From the given well log data, estimate the formation water resistivity and water saturation :

Formation temperature = 150 °F
SSP = -32 mV
Rmf = 1.2 ohm-m at formation temperature
Rt = 3.5 ohm-m
Formation factor, F = 2
The ratio Rmfe/Rwe = 0.25
Multiplying factor for Rmfe = 0.85
Multiplying factor for Rw = 1:72

5. (a) Describe the methodology for common midpoint (CMP) or roll-along shooting in seismic reflection survey with a suitable diagram.
(b) Derive the expression for estimation of depth of a horizontal reflector using the intercept time and crossover distance methods in seismic refraction with a suitable diagram.

SECTION-B

6. (a) Obtain a relation between spontaneous emission and stimulated emission coefficients in lasers.
(b) A neutron breaks into a proton and an electron. Calculate the energy produced in this reaction in MeV :

Mass of an electron = 9x10-31 kg
Mass of neutron = 1.675x10-27 kg
Mass of proton = 1.6725x10-27 kg
Speed of light = 2.998 x 108 m/s

(c) What do you mean by Poisson's equation? Convert this into Laplace's equation.
(d) A diatomic molecule can be considered to be made of two masses m1 and m2 separated by a fixed distance r. Deduce a formula for the distance of the centre of masses C from mass m. Also show that the moment of inertia about an axis through C and perpendicular to r is ur2, where u = m1/ m2 /(m1+ m2).
(e) A soap film of refractive index and of thickness 1.5x10-4 cm is illuminated by white light incident at an angle of 45°. The light reflected by it is examined by spectroscope in which is found a dark band corresponding to a wavelength of 5x10-5 cm. Calculate the order of interference band.

7. (a) Briefly describe an X-ray spectrometer used in the study of crystal structure.
(b) Write the principles of Mössbauer spectroscopy and discuss the effect of magnetic field.

8. (a) Calculate (i) the fission rate of U235 for producing a power of one watt and
(ii) the energy released in the complete fissioning of 1 kg of U235. Assume that 200 MeV is released per fission of the uranium nucleus.
(b) Find the specific heat at constant pressure of helium. If Cy = 3129 J/kg/K, one gram molecule of the gas occupies 22:42 litres at NTP. Given, density of mercury = 13600 kg/m3.

9. (a) State Biot-Savart law and using that deduce an expression for the magnetic field induction B due to a long current-carrying straight wire.
(b) What do you mean by scalar and vector potentials? Obtain gauge transformations.

10. (a) Compute the mass m and speed v of an electron having kinetic energy 1.5 MeV. Given, rest mass of an electron mo = 9.1x10-31 kgm, velocity of light in vacuum c = 3 x 108 m/s.
(b) Obtain the derivation of Lagrange's equations from Hamiltonian principle.

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UPSC Geo-Scientist and Geologist Exam Papers 2018 : Geo-Physics Paper - I


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Exam Name : UPSC Geo-Scientist and Geologist Exam 2018

Subject : Geophysics Paper - I

Year : 2018

GEOPHYSICS
Paper I

Time Allowed : Three Hours

Maximum Marks : 200

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions.

There are TEN questions divided under TWO Sections.

Candidate has to attempt SIX questions in all.

Questions No. 1 and 6 are compulsory.

Out of the remaining EIGHT questions, FOUR questions are to be attempted choosing TWO from each Section.

The number of marks carried by a question / part is indicated against it.

Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly.

Any page or portion of the page left blank in the answer-book must be clearly struck off. Answers must be written in ENGLISH only.

Neat sketches may be drawn to illustrate answers, wherever required.

Unless otherwise mentioned, symbols and notations have their usual standard meanings. Assume suitable data, if necessary and indicate the same clearly.

SECTION ‘A’

1. (a) Draw and explain different body-wave phases from an earthquake passing through the Earth.
1. (b) An electromagnetic sounding was carried in three decades i.e., 10 kHz - 10 Hz. Observations indicated that

(i) 10 kHz - 1000 Hz corresponds to 3D features
(ii) 1000 Hz - 100 Hz corresponds to 2D features
(iii) 100 Hz - 10 Hz corresponds to ID features
Draw the ellipse of polarization for representative frequencies in these three decades.

1. (c) If continental crust of 29 km thickness and oceanic crust are in isostatic equilibrium at mean sea level what will be thickness of the oceanic crust of density 2.95 gm/cm3, below 05 km ocean water, if density of the continental crust is 2.83 gm/cm3, density of mantle is 3.33 gm/cm3 and density of water is 1.0 gm/cm3 ?
1. (d) Inversion of the following 3-layered earth was performed :

Layer Resistivity (ohm - m) Thickness (m)
1 400 30
2 40 10
3 1000  -

The obtained correlation matrix is as:

Resistivity of layer 1 Resistivity of layer 2 Resistivity of layer 3 Thickness of layer 1 Thickness of layer 2
+ 1.0 + 0.21 + .011 + 0.05 + 0.03
  + 1.0 + 0.24 + 0.20 + 0.98
    + 1.0 + 0.16 - 0.2
      + 1.0 + 0.2
        + 1.0

Each layer is assumed to be electrically homogenous and isotropic.
Comment on the resolution of the layer parameters, eigenvalues an Also draw the histogram of the obtained layer parameters after inversion.

2. (a) State three main sources of Earth's surface heat flow. Define decay depth of penetration and delay time for thermal wave penetrating the subsurface. Calculate the ratio of decay depth for annual temperature variation to decay depth for daily variations.
2. (b) Calculate the present day relative motion at 28° S, 71° W on the Peru-Chile Trench using the Nazca-South America rotation pole (56-0° N, 94.0° W) having angular velocity 7.2x10-7 deg/yr. Assume the radius of the Earth to be 6371 km.
2. (c) In a subduction zone seismometers are planted in a direction perpendicular to the trench. For an earthquake arrival times are plotted for the receivers in the dip-direction. The estimated velocity from travel time plot for the top layer and subducting layer is 3 km/s and 6 km/s, respectively. What will be the dip angle of the subducting plate if the critical angle is 20° ? (Assume each layer is homogeneous and isotropic)

3. (a) Assuming two-layered horizontally stratified homogeneous Earth as crust and mantle, draw the ray-path and derive expression of travel-time for refracted seismic waves. How you can estimate the velocity of the layers ? Explain different steps to estimate the thickness of the first layer, i.e. crust.
3. (b) What is emperical relation between maximum intensity with surface wave magnitude for shallow focus earthquake. Derive expression for the maximum magnitude of the earthquake using Gutenberg-Richter relationship. Calculate number of earthquakes of zero magnitude assuming constant a=8.
3. (c) In a spherically symmetric planet of radius 6400 km velocity varies as a function of only radius. A seismic wave emerges the surface of the planet at an angle 30o from the vertical. The seismic wave velocity is 6 km/s. The deepest point of the ray touches the top of the core of the planet (having seismic velocity 9 km/s). What will be the depth of the core of the planet from the surface of the planet ?

4. (a) Derive the expression for a gravity anomaly due to a buried sphere with its centre at depth z below the surface. The ratio of gravity anomalies for distances 4 km and 10 km along a profile is 8. Assuming a spherical target, calculate the depth of the causative source.
4. (b) State the boundary condition in terms of electrical potential and current density to be satisfied at the interface separating two electrically homogenous and isotropic medium. Explain why these need to be satisfied. A current source in medium (2) of resistivity 1000 Ohm-m comes in contact with the interface at an angle of 45° and enters medium (1) of resistivity 100 Ohm-m. Calculate

(i) reflection coefficient,
(ii) the angle at which it enters medium (1), and
(iii) comment whether the current line would bend towards the normal or away from the normal.
4. (c) Magnetic measurements have been made on a basalt flow at present at 17° N 20° E. The angle of inclination of the remanent magnetization of this basalt is 45°. How much it has moved from the magnetic latitude at the time of magnetizati basalt ?

5. (a) Discuss the implication of Ñ.D = Ps(where symbols have their original meaning), when time varying natural source electromagnetic measurements are made in perpendicular direction over a swamp embedded in a highly resistive host rock.
5. (b) With the help of neat diagram discuss the variation of magnetic power with frequency (in the range of 10 kHz - 10000 seconds). Assume that the magnetic field has external origin.
5. (c) Find the model estimate for first five iterations of the following equation 2m3= 16. Assume initial guess of 1.0.

SECTION 'B'

6. (a) Write Maxwell's equations in free space and obtain wave equation for electric field vector. Hence, show that light is an e.m. wave.
6. (b) What is ionization potential ? The ionization potentials of most of the gases in Earth's atmosphere are around 15 eV. Will green light (l = 550 nm) ionize these gases ? Take (1 J = 6-24x1018 eV)
6. (c) Verify Cayley-Hamilton theorem for the matrix

A = [1 2 0, 2 -1 0, 0 0 1]

Also calculate its eigenvalues and corresponding to any one of these values, calculate the eigenvector.
6. (d) What is Brownian motion ? State its three observed characteristics.
(ii) Sedimentation is a familiar example of Brownian motion. Obtain an expression for variation of number density with height under the influence of gravity and diffusion.

7. (a) Determine the roots of the indicial equation around the origin for the differential equation

7. (b) In a resonant cavity, an e.m. oscillation of frequency 0, dies out as

The parameter is a measure of the ratio of the stored energy to energy loss per cycle. Determine the frequency distribution of the oscillation g*(w) g(w), where g(0) is the Fourier transform of f(t). Interpret your result physically
7.(c) The generating function for Bessel function of the first kind is

Obtain the recurrence relation for Jn(x).

8. (a) Write down the expression for Planck's distribution law for black body radiation in terms of frequency and wavelength. Obtain Wien's displacement law.
8. (b) It is observed that vapour pressure curve for a gas on the p-T diagram near the triple point can be fitted with the equation in p= 24.78 -3073 K/T where p is measured
in pascal. Similarly, the solid-vapour equilibrium curve for this gas can be fitted with equation In p = 28.32 - 3764 K / T. Calculate the triple point temperature and pressure.
8. (c) Plot specific Gibbs energy and its first order derivatives as a function of temperature for first and second order phase transitions.

9. (a) A particle having charge q is moving with non-relativistic speed V in Electrostatic and Magnetostatic fields. Show that its

(i) Kinetic energy is constant when it moves in uniform magnetostatic field only. Also, depict its motion.
(ii) Total energy (sum of KE & PE) is conserved in presence of static electric and magnetic fields.
9. (b) Show that the solution of Laplace equation in rectangular coordinate system are harmonic functions.
9. (c) A transmitting antenna is kept on the top of a tower at height 36 m and the receiving antenna is kept at the height 49 m. Calculate the maximum distance between them for satisfactory communication in the line of sight mode. Take radius of the Earth as 6400 km.

10. (a) Obtain the expression for electromagnetic fields at point P located at distance r in space due to a small dipole antenna oriented in z-direction and having the current element Idl. Given that the z-component of the vector potential at point P is

where the symbols have their usual meaning. Also find at what distance the induction field and radiation field become equal.
10. (b) What is the significance of ionosphere for a planet ? Discuss chemical and photochemical processes taking place in the Earth's ionosphere.
(ii) Draw the variation of electron density with altitude for the Earth's ionosphere.
10. (c) What do you understand by the term GPS ? How does it work?
(ii) Can GPS signal be jammed ? Explain.

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UPSC Geo-Scientist and Geologist Exam Papers 2018 : Hydrogeology


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Exam Name : UPSC Geo-Scientist and Geologist Exam 2018

Subject : Hydrogeology

Year : 2018

HYDROGEOLOGY

Time Allowed : Three Hours

Maximum Marks : 200

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions.

There are NINE questions divided under FIVE Sections.

Candidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all.

The ONLY question in Section A is compulsory.

Out of the remaining EIGHT questions, the candidate has to attempt FOUR, choosing ONE from each of the other Sections B, C, D, E and F.

The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it.

Symbols, abbreviations and notations have their usual standard meanings.

Neat sketches are to be drawn to illustrate answers, wherever required. Wherever required, graphs/tables are to be drawn on the QCA Booklet itself.

Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly.

Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Booklet must be clearly struck off.

Answers must be written in ENGLISH only.

SECTION-A
(Compulsory Section)

Q1. Write notes on the following in not more than 5 sentences each :

(a) Transmissivity of Aquifers
(b) Vadose Zone
(c) Spatial Resolution in Remote Sensing
(d) Piezometer
(e) Reynolds Number
(f) Cone of Depression
(g) GRACE Satellite Data-finding for Groundwater Status
(h) Check Dams

SECTION B (Attempt any one question)

Q2. (a) Describe the role of vadose zone in water balance equation.
(b) What are aquifers ? Explain the different types of aquifers and their characteristics with suitable diagrams.
(c) Describe the salient features of different groundwater provinces of India. 15

Q3. (a) Define the origin of Sambhar Lake and its relation with surrounding aquifers.
(b) How are the groundwater levels affected by tides and weather fluctuation ?
(c) Classify the rocks based on their water-bearing properties.

SECTION C (Attempt any one question)

Q4. (a) The water table elevations (in m above mean sea level) measured from observation wells of an area are shown in Map 1. After drawing the water table contours, discuss about the groundwater flow directions and significances.
(b) Define hydraulic conductivity. Explain the field methods of determining the hydraulic conductivity of aquifer media.
(c) What is meant by Porosity ? Explain the types of porosities encountered in various rock types. Add a note on the two aquifer properties involved in porosity.

Q5. (a) Explain the factors controlling groundwater flow. Highlight the types of flows encountered in different kinds of aquifers.
(b) Pumping tests were conducted in a set of four wells designated as A, B, C and D, with a pumping rate of 100 cu.m./day, in each well. The semi-log plot of drawdown versus time has shown the following drawdown-per-log cycle (As) values as output :

Well A B C D
Ds 0.25 0.75 0.50 0.15

After calculating the aquifer transmissivities using Jacob's straight line equation, compare the nature of aquifers in these wells. Find out the best performing well.
(c) What are groundwater models ? Give an account on the protocols of groundwater models, available for water resources evaluation.

SECTION D (Attempt any one question)

Q6. (a) What are the elements of interpretation adopted in Satellite Images ? Give an account on the role of Remote Sensing in groundwater exploration.
(b) Write notes on the following:

(i) Principles of Seismic Refraction Method
(ii) Bouguer Anomalies
(iii) Proton Precession Magnetometer

(c) What are the basic principles involved in Electrical Resistivity Method ? Give an account on the types of surface electrical resistivity methods employed in groundwater exploration.

Q7. (a) What are water wells ? Give an account on the methods adopted into design, development and maintenance of various types of tube wells.
(b) Explain the water well drilling methods employed in the groundwater exploration of hard rock terrains.
(c) What are the basic principles involved in well logging ? Give an account on the methods of subsurface geophysical logging employed for hydrogeological interpretations.

SECTION E (Attempt any one question)

Q8. (a) How do the following parameters affect the use of groundwater ?

(i) Hardness
(ii) pH
(iii) EC
(iv) SAR
(v) Fluoride

(b) Name various graphical representation techniques of groundwater hydrochemical data. Explain the one which is used for the classification of groundwater into various facies.
(c) What is Radon ? Explain its implications in hydrogeology.

Q9. (a) Discuss the major challenges in implementation of groundwater related regulatory measures in India.
(b) Explain the following pertaining to the groundwater management :

(i) Supply side measures
(ii) Demand side measures

(c) Calculate the total annual rainfall runoff available from a roof top area of 2080 sq.m. with surface runoff coefficient 0.8 and average annual rainfall of 600 mm.

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UPSC Geo-Scientist and Geologist Exam Papers 2018 : Geology Paper- III


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Exam Name : UPSC Geo-Scientist and Geologist Exam

Subject : UPSC Geo-Scientist and Geologist Exam Papers 2018 : Geology Paper- III

Year : 2018

GEOLOGY PAPER—III

Time Allowed : Three Hours

Maximum Marks : 200

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions.

There are ELEVEN questions divided under SIX Sections.

Candidate has to attempt SIX questions in all.

The ONLY question in Section A is compulsory.

Out of the remaining TEN questions, the candidate has to attempt FIVE, choosing ONE from each of the other Sections B, C, D, E and F.

The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it.

Symbols, abbreviations and notations have their usual standard meanings.

Neat sketches are to be drawn to illustrate answers, wherever required. Wherever required, graphs/tables are to be drawn on the QCA Booklet itself.

Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly.

Any page or portion of the page left blank in the QCA Booklet must be clearly struck off.

Answers must be written in ENGLISH only.

SECTION-A

1. Write on/Answer each of the following in short with sketches, wherever necessary :

(a) Reserves and occurrence of gold deposits in India
(b) Mineralogy and classification of chromite deposits in India
(c) Common rock types found in skarn deposits and factors which control skarn mineralization
(d) Induced potential methods of geophysical exploration
(e) Reserves, probable resource and hypothetical resources for mineral commodities
(f) Geobotanical indicators of ore deposits
(g) Describe briefly about structural oil traps.
(h) Stratigraphic status of Neyveli lignite deposits
(i) Remedial measures of landslides
(j) Compressive strength of rocks

SECTION-B
Attempt any one question

2. (a) Describe in detail about the mineralogy, modes of occurrence, origin and distribution of nickel deposits in India.
(b) Discuss in detail about UNFC's classification of mineral resources and reserves.

3. (a) Give an account of the marine mineral resources of India.
(b) Describe the uses, occurrence and distribution of gypsum deposits of India.
(c) Discuss in brief about strategic and critical minerals.

SECTION-C
Attempt any one question

4. (a) Describe the association of different magma types with ore deposits and explain the role of geochemical behaviour of elements in ore deposit formation.
(b) Name two mineral commodities for which gravity method of geophysical exploration may be employed. Also discuss the principle and corrections of gravity survey.

5. (a) Discuss the role of fluids in mineralization in magmatic systems. What controls the solubility of water in silicate melts?
(b) What are kimberlites and from where these rocks are reported in India? Mention the relationship between kimberlites and formation of diamonds.
(c) Describe metallogenesis through geological time. Illustrate your answer with one major ore deposit of India.

SECTION-D
Attempt any one question

6. (a) Describe the main types of core drilling techniques. Also write how planning for a core drilling of a sub-horizontal and a steeply dipping deposit will be undertaken.
(b) What do you understand by coefficient of aqueous migration? Write the factors which control the strength of a geochemical anomaly. Describe Hawkes model relating the size of mineralization with the strength of geochemical anomaly.

7. (a) Describe included and excluded area methods of ore reserve estimation for an irregular grid sampled deposit.
(b) What are the different types of sampling errors? Describe Gy's theory for minimization of these errors.
(c) Estimate ore reserves of a Zn deposit by cross-section method with the following data. Assume a dilution factor of 10%. Use the rule of influence for defining the strike length. Calculate the average grade of ore also :

Section Section area (sq. m) Grade (Percentage) Bulk Density (gm/cm3)
A 1500 6.7 2.8
B 1800 4.3 2.9
C 2200 5.1 2.9

SECTION—E
Attempt any one question

8. (a) Describe in detail the transformation of organic matter into oil and gas. What is the role of temperature in this transformation?
(b) Discuss coal characterization in terms of lithotypes and macerals. Also describe the coal classification based on chemistry.

9. (a) What is oil shale? Briefly explain the problem of recovery of oil from oil shale.
(b) Enumerate the types of environment for the formation of radioactive mineral deposits.
(c) Describe the radioactive methods in petroleum exploration.

SECTION-F
Attempt any one question

10. (a) Give an account of the geological investigations at bridge sites for the stability of a bridge.
(b) Explain the various groundwater problems in connection with the construction of dams and tunnels.

11. (a) Give an account of the types of forces to be accounted for in the construction of dams in seismically active areas.
(b) Explain the excavating cycle of a tunnel during construction in a hard rock terrain.
(c) Describe the different types of coastal protection structures.

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UPSC Geo-Scientist and Geologist Exam Papers 2018 : Geology Paper- II


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Exam Name : UPSC Geo-Scientist and Geologist Exam

Subject : UPSC Geo-Scientist and Geologist Exam Papers 2018 : Geology Paper- II

Year : 2018

GEOLOGY - Paper II

Time Allowed : Three Hours

Maximum Marks : 200

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions.

There are ELEVEN questions divided under SIX Sections.

Candidate has to attempt SIX questions in all.

The ONLY question in Section A is compulsory.

Out of the remaining TEN questions, the candidate has to attempt FIVE choosing ONE from each of the other Sections B, C, D, E & F.

The number of marks carried by a question / part is indicated against it.

Symbols, abbreviations and notations have their usual standard meanings.

Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order.

Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly.

Answers must be written in ENGLISH only.

Neat sketches are to be drawn to illustrate answers, wherever required.

Wherever required, graphs / tables are to be drawn on the answer-book itself.

Any page or portion of the page left blank in the answer-book must be clearly struck off.

SECTION 'A' (Compulsory Section)

1. Write notes on each of the following:

1. (a) Partition coefficient
1. (b) Binary eutectic in magmatic crystallization
1. (c) CIPW Norm
1. (d) Metasomatism
1. (e) Shock metamorphism
1. (f) Stylolite
1. (g) Incized Valley Fill
1. (h) Soil profile
1. (i) Cultural eutrophication
1. (j) Acid mine drainage

SECTION 'Bo (Mineralogy, Geochemistry and Isotope Geology)
(Attempt any ONE question)

2. (a) Briefly describe the structure and classification of pyroxene group of minerals.
2. (b) How would you determine optic sign of a biaxial mineral ?

3. (a) How do we come to know about the origin and evolution of atmosphere from geological record ?
3. (b) Illustrate the basic principle of radiometric dating of rocks. How would you use such principle in U-Pb decay series for constructing 'concordia' curve for dating of minerals such as zircon ?

SECTION "C" (Igneous Petrology) (Attempt any ONE question)

4. (a) Explain the processes involved in the evolution and differentiation of a magma.
4. (b) Illustrate with examples the significance of textures in understanding crystallisation history of igneous rocks.

5. (a) What are alkaline igneous rocks? How do you explain their compositional variation in relation to plate tectonics ?.
5. (b) How are ultramafic rocks classified as per IUGS ?

SECTION 'D' (Metamorphic Petrology and Processes)
(Attempt any ONE question)

6. (a) Discuss the role of temperature, pressure and fluids in causing different types of metamorphism.
6. (b) What is isograd ? How is it useful in distinguishing different metamorphic terranes ?

7. (a) Describe the granulite facies metamorphism in relation to mineral assemblages, composition and P-T conditions.
7. (b) What are paired metamorphic belts ? How do you explain the development of such belts ?

SECTION 'E'
(Sedimentology)
(Attempt any ONE question)

8. (a) What are the different types of sediment-gravity flows ? How would you infer rheological conditions of such flows from their deposits in rock record ? 20
8. (b) Describe with neat sketches two primary sedimentary structures that are commonly useful for paleocurrent analysis. How would you use paleocurrent analysis to facilitate interpretation of depositional environment from rock record?

9. (a) How would you explain 'shallowing upward' facies sequence of shallow-marine siliciclastic and carbonate deposits in rock record ?
9. (b) How would you distinguish between sedimentary basins of continental rift and foreland tectonic settings from sandstone detrital framework composition ?

SECTION 'F' (Environmental Geology and Natural Hazards)
(Attempt any ONE question)

10. (a) Describe common biological and toxic chemical pollutants of water. Add a note on their mobility in hydrological regime.
10. (b) How do geology and topography affect the flood conditions of a river ?

11. (a) Explain the role of various factors affecting slope stability.
11. (b) What measures can be taken to control ‘Global Warming'?

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UPSC Geo-Scientist and Geologist Exam Papers 2018 : Geology Paper- I


(Download) UPSC: Geologist Examination Papers-2018


Exam Name : UPSC Geo-Scientist and Geologist Exam

Subject : UPSC Geo-Scientist and Geologist Exam Papers 2018 : Geology Paper- I

Year : 2018

GEOLOGY Paper - I

Time Allowed : Three Hours

Maximum Marks : 200

Question Paper Specific Instructions

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions :

There are ELEVEN questions divided under SIX sections.

Candidate has to attempt SIX questions in all. The ONLY question in Section A is compulsory. Out of the remaining TEN questions, the candidate has to attempt FIVE, choosing ONE from each of the other Sections B, C, D, E and F.

The number of marks carried by a question/ part is indicated against it.

Symbols, abbreviations and notations have their usual standard meanings.

Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly.

Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Question-cum-Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

Answers must be written in ENGLISH only.

Neat sketches are to be drawn to illustrate answers, wherever required.

Wherever required, graphs/tables are to be drawn on the Question-cum-Answer Booklet itself.

SECTION A (Compulsory Section)

Q1. Answer and/or describe the following in brief with diagrams wherever necessary :

(a) Types of atmospheric scattering exhibited by electromagnetic radiation.
(b) Draw a neat labelled sketch of a soil profile.
(c) City 'A' lies in toposheet number 78 I/16, City 'B' lies in another toposheet to the east of 78 I/16. Name the toposheet number of City 'B'. If map separation between A and B is 10 cm, what is the ground distance ? (Scale of the toposheet is 1 : 50,000)
(d) How is sense of shear determined with S-C fabric, a and b type porphyroclast and intra granular fault ?
(e) Pan-African Rejuvenation of Southern Granulite Terrane.
(f) Subduction Zone
(g) Stratigraphy of Central India Tectonic Zone
(h) Arrange the following igneous suites in chronological order, mentioning their isotopic ages and stratigraphic units :

(i) Malani Igneous Suite
(ii) Dongargarh Granite
(iii) Closepet Granite
(iv) Singhbhum Granite
(v) Deccan Basalt

(i) Life cycle of Agamont and Gamont
(j) Allopatric Speciation

SECTION B (Attempt any one question)

Q2. (a) Describe the IRS system satellite programme with special emphasis on the sensor system used in each and their characteristics. Comment on the utility of remote sensing images for societal benefit.

(b) Write short notes on the following:

(i) Types of drainage patterns
(ii) Erosional features formed by wind
(iii) Stream length gradient index

Q3. (a) Discuss the different types of aerial photographs. Comment on their utility in geological studies.
(b) Briefly discuss the geological applications of SLAR images.
(c) Describe the reasons of increasing usage of GIS in geological investigations.

SECTION C (Attempt any one question)

Q4. (a) Disharmonic folding with variation of wavelength and amplitude are widely observed in folded terranes. Explain the mechanism of such folding with appropriate equation.
(b) What types of Faults are developed in a compression and extensional setting ? Explain with neat sketch, the stress tensor for each type of fault.

Q5. (a) The map pattern of alternate sequence of quartzite and limestone is given below. Interpret the structures in the given map and draw a cross-section along E-W line and plot the bedding (pole) in a free hand stereoplot.

(b) Write short notes on the following:

(i) Class 2 fold
(ii) Slaty cleavage
(iii) Crenulation cleavage
(iv) Boudin
(v) Dynamic recrystallisation

(c) Draw suitable figures to explain Fault Bend Fold and Fault Propagation Fold.

SECTION D (Attempt any one question)

Q6. (a) Discuss the types of plate boundaries and explain the driving forces of plate motion related to mantle dynamics and gravity force.
(b) Describe the applications of palaeomagnetism in determining the palaeoposition of India.

Q7. (a) Illustrate the layered structure of the Earth with emphasis on the mineral composition, density and temperature.
(b) Write short notes on the following:

(i) Magnetic anomaly
(ii) Transform fault

(c) Discuss the evolution of ocean island chains with examples.

SECTION E (Attempt any one question)

Q8. (a) Give stratigraphic succession of Western and Eastern Dharwar craton. Explain, how the Dharwar craton grades into southern granulitic terrane through transition zone, based on lithology.
(b) Draw a profile across Himalayan orogen and show different tectono-stratigraphy units in it. Explain each unit with respect to its topography, lithology and age. Plot the following features in the profile : (i) Blue schist rocks (ii) Dras volcanics (iii) Kiogars (iv) Paleozoics of the Kashmir valley.

Q9. (a) Discuss stratigraphy, sedimentation and fossil content of Gondwana sediments of India.
(b) Tabulate the litho-bio-chronostratigraphy of Kutch Basin.
(c) Write short notes on the following:

(i) Subathu Formation
(ii) Papagni Group

SECTION F (Attempt any one question)

Q10. (a) Elucidate the applications of Munier-Chalmas notation of the dentition of pelecypods with neat diagrams.
(b) Enumerate the types of microfossils and discuss the significance of organic-walled microfossils in biostratigraphy and hydrocarbon exploration.

Q11. (a) Explain the PETM event in geological record.
(b) Discuss the Siwalik vertebrate fauna and their stratigraphic distribution.
(c) Illustrate the Echinoid test with a sketch and comment on its ecology, stratigraphic range and geological history.

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UPSC Geo-Scientist and Geologist Exam Papers 2018 : General English


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Exam Name : UPSC Geo-Scientist and Geologist Exam

Subject : UPSC Geo-Scientist and Geologist Exam Papers 2018 : General English

Year : 2018

GENERAL ENGLISH

Time Allowed : Three Hours

Maximum Marks : 100

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions.

There are SIX questions and all are to be attempted.

The number of marks carried by a question / part is indicated against it.

Answers must be written in ENGLISH only.

Candidates are required to write clear, legible and concise answers and to adhere to word limits, wherever indicated. Failure to adhere to word limits may be penalized.

Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Question-cum-Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

1. Write an essay on any one of the following topics in about 800 words :

(a) Accountability, not mere stability, essential for good governance
(b) Pros and Cons of online education and examinations
(c) Rural Sector's potential to contribute to the Indian economy
(d) Social Media attains credibility with objectivity and humanity
(e) Effective Centralized Enforcement Agency necessary to prevent harassment and violence against women

2. Make a précis of the following passage in about one-third of the original length, using your own words :

Education has not been of the kind that can help you towards happiness. It has not been of the kind that can make you capable of freedom. The aim of education in a democracy must be the same for all the people. Education must aim at making them all capable of freedom, for they are all to be free. Whatever education will achieve, this aim must be given to every person in proportion to his capacity to receive it. If education is necessary for one, it must be necessary for all. Only in this way can we hope to prevent the exploitation of one group by another. Only in this way can we develop a true community. The citizens must be able to understand one another. They must have a common culture. They must have the intellectual training needed to comprehend it and to communicate with those who share it.

Education for freedom consists in transmitting to the rising generation the civilization they have inherited, together with the techniques by which it may be understood. No man or woman is equipped to be a ruler without this education. As liberal education helps us to establish a free community, so does it to preserve it. As Thomas F. Woodlock has said in the Wall Street Journal, “Democracy rests ultimately upon 'public opinion' as its base. Public opinion follows upon free speech, free interchange of ideas, of judgments, of opinions; it is generated by these things. Men interchange these things by words..... Sound logic it was that put grammar, logic, and rhetoric as preliminary to geometry, arithmetic, music, and astronomy in the scheme of the seven liberal arts in an age which was notable for the clearness of its thinking and the exactitude of its expression. Both these things are absolutely necessary for the functioning of democracy as the best form of government. If we are going to educate for democracy', we had better find the right way to teach them.” And the ability to read and write is the best defence against anti-democratic propaganda. Under the name of 'indoctrination of democracy a host of lies is being propagated. When a person equipped with the liberal arts has critically studied the basic theoretical questions, he is proof against the. seductions of the New Order. The reason why we may justly fear such propaganda today is that we are uneducated.

In addition to all the above merits, liberal education has yet another : it is the best vocational training. Vocational training of the usual sort trains hands. The ideal education for freedom is a liberal education in the liberal arts and the cultural heritage of the country. Since it is the ideal, we must aim at it for every citizen. Unless the citizen can master the liberal arts and the fundamental principles of a free society he cannot function as a member of a free community.

He cannot help to keep the community as a free community. If we cannot give liberal education to every citizen in proportion to his capacity to receive it we might as well give up our hopes achieving a democratic community. We cannot insist on free men and at the same time say that we cannot educate our population for freedom. We cannot insist on a community and at the same time say that it is impossible to strengthen the basis of communication among our people. Individual happiness, good citizenship, and the improvement of society all depend on our success in helping the people to achieve liberal education. These objectives do not depend on our success in training people to earn a living or in adjusting them to their environment. What the world needs, what the country must have, is free minds. This does not mean minds loaded with archaic information or equipped with obsolescent techniques. It means minds committed to the general good by good moral and intellectual habits. It means minds informed by principles derived from human experience through the ages, minds that will operate well no matter what waves of change beat upon them.

If we are to admit everybody to citizenship we must try to give everybody this kind of education. In so far as men are men they must have this education. Since in our society all men are politically equal, since all men are either rulers or the ruled, they must all be educated to be rulers and the ruled. If we cannot give them all this education, we may as well drop the pretence of democracy. We may as well admit that, though it was a good idea, it would not work.

3. Write a paragraph in about 200 words on any one of the following expressions / statements :

(a) Every cloud has a silver lining.
(b) Handsome is as handsome does.
(c) Good fences make good neighbours.
(d) That's the way the cookie crumbles.
(e) If gold rusts, what shall the iron do.

4. Use the following words in sentences so as to bring out their meaning clearly. Do not change the form of the word. No credit will be given for a vague or ambiguous sentence.

(a) recondite
(b) largesse
(c) macabre
(d) zealot
(e) disingenuous

5. Use the following idioms and phrasal verbs in sentences so as to bring out their meaning clearly :

(a) infringe upon
(b) hear on the grapevine
(c) fend for
(d) caught in the crossfire
(e) go off at a tangent

6. Correct the following sentences without changing their meaning. Do not make unnecessary changes in the original sentence:

(a) My friend reached the airport on time to have a coffee before boarding.
(b) He was found guilty of stealing his employer.
(c) Sonu got a present from his father but he hasn't opened it.
(d) I am obliged to serve him, isn't it?
(e) I would watch a football match than a cricket series.
(f) They were annoyed at not to be able to see the puppet show properly.
(g) The economics of the plan is worrying the investors.
(h) He got up at 5 O'clock not to be late for the interview.
(i) If they offered me the position, I shall decline it. (j) I go to the work in afternoon.

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UPSC परीक्षा ​: समसमायिकी वस्तुनिष्ठ प्रश्न, Hindi Current Affairs MCQ - 05 July 2018

IAS EXAM


UPSC परीक्षा ​: समसमायिकी वस्तुनिष्ठ प्रश्न, Hindi Current Affairs MCQ - 05 July 2018


Q.1- नए डीएनए प्रोफाइलिंग बिल (New DNA Profiling Bill) 2018 के संबंध में निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन सत्य है?

1) डीएनए आधारित प्रौधोगिकी  (उपयोग और विनियमन) विधेयक, 2018 का लक्ष्य केंद्रीय और राज्य प्राधिकरण दोनों के साथ डीएनए डेटा बैंक बनाना है।
2) अपराध की जांच, अज्ञात निकायों की पहचान, या माता-पिता को निर्धारित करने में डीएनए प्रौधोगिकी पर तेजी से भरोसा किया जा रहा है।

(a) केवल 1
(b) केवल 2
(c) 1 और 2
(d) इनमे से कोई नहीं

Q.2- रॉकेट की "लंबी मार्च" (Long March) श्रृंखला निम्नलिखित में से किस देश द्वारा शुरू की जाती है?

(a) जापान
(b) चीन
(c) उत्तरी कोरिया
(d) रूस

Q.3- ब्लोरा बे (Vlora Bay) जो पानी के नीचे जहाजों के स्थान के रूप में जाना जाता है, निम्नलिखित में से किन किनारों में पाया जाता है?

(a) काला समुद्र
(b) लाल समुद्र
(c) भूमध्य सागर
(d) अराल समुद्र

Q.4- निम्नलिखित में से किन टीमों ने फुटबॉल विश्व कप में सबसे अधिक गोल किए हैं?

(a) अर्जेंटीना
(b) जर्मनी
(c) इंग्लैंड
(d) ब्राजील

Q.5- आपदा जोखिम कमी (Disaster Risk Reduction) 2018 पर एशियाई मंत्रिस्तरीय सम्मेलन (AMCDRR) द्वारा निम्न्लिखित में से किस देश में आयोजित किया गया था?

(a) मंगोलिया
(b) जापान
(c) फिलिपिन्स
(d) मलेशिया

UPSC सामान्य अध्ययन प्रारंभिक एवं मुख्य परीक्षा (Combo) Study Kit

UPSC सामान्य अध्ययन (GS) प्रारंभिक परीक्षा (Pre) पेपर-1 स्टडी किट

CAPF-AC (Assistant Commandant) Exam Study Material : Geography - Biodiversity and its conservation

CAPF-AC (Assistant Commandant) Exam Study Material : Geography - Biodiversity and its conservation

India is an identified mega diverse country, rich in biodiversity and associated traditional knowledge. The country also has a tradition of conservation and sustainable use of its biodiversity, which has now come under pressure on account of various factors including development imperatives, habitat fragmentation, and introduction of invasive alien species.

Biodiversity comprises all the diversity observed among species, their populations and also the vast ecosystems.

In other words Biological diversity, or biodiversity, encompasses the variety of all life on earth. Biodiversity manifests itself at three levels: species diversity which refers to the numbers and kinds of loving organisms; genetic diversity which refers to genetic variation within species; and ecosystem diversity which denotes the variety of habitats. To date, about 1.7 million species have been described while many more await discovery. India, a megadiversity country with only 2.4 per cent of the land area, accounts for 7-8 per cen of the recorded species of the world spread over 45,500 species of plants and 91,000 species of animals that have been documented so far.

In terms of species richness, India ranks seventh in mammals, ninth in birds and fifth in reptiles. In terms of endemism of vertebrate groups, India’s position in tenth in birds with 69 species, fifth in reptiles with 156 species and seventh in amphibians with 110 species. India’s share of crops in 44 per cent as compared to the world average of 11 per cent. India also has 23.39 per cent of its geographical area under forest and tree cover.

Of the 34 gloablly identified biodiversity hotspots, India harbours four hotspots, i.e., Himalaya, Indo- Burma, Western Ghats and Sri Lanka and Sundaland.

I. Faunal diversity

So far, nearly 91,212 faunal species (7.43 per cent of the world’s faunal species) have been recorded in the country. Whereas inventories of mammals, birds, reptiles, amphibians and fishes are fairly complete, a large number of other life forms are yet to be described.

The Indian faunal groups show diverse range of dndemismacross groups. Some of the lower groups such as Mesozoa (100 per cent), Acanthocephala (88.6 per cent), Oligochaeta (77.8 per cent), Platyhelminthes (71.9 per cent), Kinorhyncha (70 per cent) show high degree of endemism. among higher groups, Amphibia (61.2 per cent) and Reptilia (47 per cent) deserve special mention.

As per the IUCn Red List (2008). India has 413 globally threatened faunal species, which is approximately 4.9 per cent of the world's total number of threatened faunal species. The global estimates as per IUCN Red List, 2008 suggest that 10 per cent (5,966 species) of vertebrate and 0.20 per cent (2,496 species) of invertebrate described fauna is threatened. In 2004 one species, megaptera novaeangliae, showed an upward trend of population while eleven species shows stable populations. Further, of the total 447 threatened species, for which trends are available, 218 are showing decreasing trend of population as per the 2004 status. The 2008 report, however, indicates upward population trend of one-homed rhinoceros in the country, as a result, the threat category has improved from endangered to vulnerable.

Important Facts

  • Biodiversity comprises all the diversity observed among species, their populations and also the vast ecosystems.
  • Of the 34 globally identified biodiversity hotspots India harbors four hotspots i.e. Himalaya, Indo-Burma, Western Ghats and Sri Lanka and Sundaland.
  • In terms of plant diversity. India ranks tenth in the world and fourth in Asia. With over 45,500 plant species. India represents nearly 11 per cent of the world’ known floral diversity.
  • So far nearly 91.212 faunal species (7.43 per cent of the world's faunal species) have been recorded in the country. Whereas mammals, birds reptiles, amphibians and fishes are fairly complete, a large number of other life forms are yet to be described.

India, through its strong initiatives for survery and monitoring of biodiversity, is contributing towards new discoveries. For example, ZSI has discovered 655 faunal species in 2007 and National Bureau of Fish Genetic Resources (NBFGR) reported 36 new fin fish species from diverse biogeographic zones of India.

II. Floral Divesity

In terms of plant diversity, India ranks tenth in the world and fourth in Asia.With over 45,500 plant species, India represents nearly 11 per cent of the world’s known floral diversity. As elsewhere in the world, many organisms fungil algae, lichens and bryophytes are yet to be described and remote geographica areas are to be comprehensively explored.

Angiospersms: India has about 17,527 species of flowering plants (more than 7 per cent of the world’s known flowering plants) in 247 families and 2984 genera. The dominant families with more than 500 species are Poaceae-1291; Orchidaceae-1229; Leguminosae-1225; Asteraceae-892; Rubiaceae- 616; Cyperaceae-545; Euphoribaceae-527; and Acanthaceae-510.

Gymnosperms nare represented by about 67 species. Pinaceae (6 genera and 15 species) is the largest famialy, followed by Cupressaceae (13 genera and 13 species), Ephedraceae (1 genus, 7 species) and Gnetaceae (1 genus and 5 species). The species of Gnetum and Cycas are mostly confined to North Eastern region, Eastern and Western Ghats, and Andaman & Nicobar Islands.

Pteriodphytes: India has about 1200 species under 204 genera. While species of Marsilea, Azolla and Salvinia grow in aquatic habitats, those of Acrostichum occur in mangrove eco-systems. The north-eastern region (including Eastern Himalaya) is rich in pteridophyic diversity with about 845 species, followed by south India (including Eastern and Western Ghats) with 345 species and north India (including Western Himalaya) with 340 species. About 17 per cent of the species are endemic of India. The families such as Polypodiaceae (137 species), Dryopteridaceae (125 species), Athyriaceae (97 species), Thelypteridaceae (83 species), Salaginella (62 species), Asplenium (45 species) and Polystichum (45 species) are som of the dominant families and genera of the pteriodophytic flora of India region.

Bryophytes represented by 2500 species are the second largest-group of green plants in India distributed largely in Eastern Himalaya, Northeastern India, Western Himalaya and the Western Ghats. Mosses constitute the major component of Indian bryoflora with 1576 species followed by liverworts and hornworts (924 species). Lejeuneaceae (155 species) is the largest family followed by Pottiaceae (129), Dicranacea (119), bryaceae (98) and Sematophyllaceae (92 species). Fissidens (67 species) is the largs genus followed by Plagiochila (65) and Frullania (63). Nineteen genera and 629 species are endemic to India.

Important Facts

  • Eighteen families of flowering plants occurring in India such as Ancistrocladaceae. Brebersteiniaceae. Martyniaceae. Tetra centraceae and Trichopodaceae, etc., are mono generic.
  • In the case of fauna, new plant species are continually being discovered in the country. For example 41 plant taxa were discovered by BSI, and other researchers from diverse bio-geographic zones of India during 2007.
  • India has 14,500 species of fungi in 2,300 genera and 250 families with maximum diversity in the Western Ghats followed by the eastern Himalaya and the western Himalaya.
  • Lichns representing symbrotic association of fungi and algae, constitute a dominant component of epiphytic and saxicolous, vegetation and comprise 2,223 species in 283 genera and 72 families.

Major Multilateral environment agreements (MEAs) ratified by India

MEAs Year Issues covered
Convention on Wetlands of International Importance 1971 Conservation and wise use of wetlands Primarily as habitat for the water-birds
Convention for the Protection of World Cultural and Natural 1972 Protection and conservation of cultural Heritage and natural heritage
Convention on International  Trade in Endangered Species 1973 International trade in endangered species of wild fauna and flora
Bonn Convention on Migratory Species of Wild Animals 1979 Conservation, management and wise use of migratory species of wild animals and their habitats
Vienna Convention for that Deplete the Ozone Layer 1985 Protection of atmospheric ozone layer above the planetary boundary layer
Monterla Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer 1987 Protection of atmospheric ozone layer above the planetary boundary layer
Basel Convention on Trans-boundary Movements of Hazardous Wasters and their Disposal 1989 Regulation of Trans boundary ozone layer of hazardous wastes and their disposal
United Nations Framework Convention-on Climate Change (UNFCCC) 1992 Changes in the earth’s climate system due to anthropogenic interference
Kyoto Protocol to the UNFCCC 1997 Quantified emission limitation and reduction commitments for Annex 1 Parties
Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) 1992 Biological diversity and biological resources
Cartagena Protocol on Bio safety to the CBD 2000 Regulation of trans boundary movement, transit, handling and use of living modified organisms (LMOs)
United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification 1994 Combating desertification and militate the effects of drought, particularly in Africa.
Rotterdam Convention on the Prior Informed Consent Procedure for Certain Hazardous Chemicals and  Pesticides in International Trade 1998 Promote shared responsibility and cooperative efforts among the Parties in the international trade of certain hazardous chemicals, in order to protect human health and the environment from potential harm and to contribute to their environmentally sound use
Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants 2001 Protect human health and the environment from persistent organic pollutants.


Lichens representing symbiotic association of fungi and algae, constitute a dominant component of epiphytic and saxicolous vegetation, and comprise 2,223 species in 283 genera and 72 families. Western Ghata are the rivhes region with 800 species (38 per cent) followed by Eastern Himalaya with 759 species (37 per cent) and Western Himalaya with 550 species (27 per cent). Families such as Parmeliaceae, Graphidaceae, Physciaceae, Usneaceae, Cladoniaceae, and genera like Parmelia, Graphina, Usnea, Graphis and Lecannora are among the dominant families and genera of Indian lichens. about 23 per cent species, mainly belonging to genera Graphina, Trypethelium, Graphis and Porina, are endemic to India. Andaman & Nicobar Islands (24 per cent), Western Ghats (20 per cent) and Eastern Himalaya (18 per cent) show high percentage of endemic species.

Fungi: India has 14;500 species of fungi in 2,300 genera and 250 families with maximum diversity in the Western Ghats followed by the eastern Himalaya and the western Himalaya. Deuteromycetes with 900 genera and 6000 species (40 per cent) is the largest group of Indiamycoflora, followed by Ascomycetes [680 genera / 3500 species (25 per cent)] and Basidiomyceter [520 genera / 3400 species (23 per cent)]. Cercospora with 707 species is the largest genus of Indian fungi followed by Puccinia (328 species) and Phyllosticta (280 species). About species are endemic to the country.

Algae are represented by over 7,175 species in 666 genera. They are found in a variety of habitats ranging from aquatic (both fresh water and marine) to terrestrial. Cholorophyceae with 4,495 species is the largest family followed by Cyanophyceae (1,453 species) and Bacillariophyceae (516 species).

Eighteen families of flowering plants occuring in India such as Ancistrocladaceae, Biebersteiniaceae, Martyniaceae, Tetra-centraceae and Trichopodaceae, etc., are monogeneric. About 2,863 (16.4 per cent) are trees, which include some of the highly valued timber species of the world. Indi is also a storehouse of primitive flowering plants, confined mainly in North Eastern region of the country. Diversity of such plants led Takhtajan (1969) to designate this region as the “Cradle of Flowering Plants’. The Indian flora also shows a rich diversity in aquatic flowering plants. Some important families of aquatic plants include Hydrocharitaceae (13 species),Pontederiaceae (13 species), Alismateacea (8 species), Aponogetonaceae (6 species), Potamogetonaceae (6 species), Typhaceae (4 species), Salviniaceae (3 species), etc. The insectivorous plant families, yet another group of unique plants are represented by Lentibulariaceae (36 species), Droseraceae (3 species), and Nepenthaceae (1 species).

About 11,058 species are endemic to India region, 6,200 of which belong to flowring plants alone. Eastern Himalaya and north-eastern region (about 2,500 species), peninsular India including western and Eastern Ghats (about 2,600 species), northwestern Himalaya (about 800 species) and Andaman & Nicobar Islands (about 250 species) are the areas rich in endemic plants.

As in the case of fauna, new plant species are continually being discovered in the country. For example, 41 plant taxa were discovered by BSI and other researchers from diverse bio-geographic zones of Idnia during 2007. Similarly in cryptogams (Lichens and Bryophytes), the National Botanical Research Institute (NBRI), Lucknow described 11 new species during 2007-08. Under the AICOPTAX, 493 taxa new to science have been discovered

Important Facts

Area Initiative / Even Contribution

  1. Indian Network for Climate Chnge Assessemtn (INCCA): Network of 120 research institution and 250 scientists launched; major conferences planned in May and November 2010.
  2. Himalayan Glaciers Monitoring Programme: Comprehsive programme to scientifically monitor the Himalayan galciers Phase I completed; Phase Ii launched; Discussion Paper on State of Himalayan Glaciers released
  3. Launch of Indian Satellite to Monitor Greenhouse Gases ISRO to launch a micro-satellite in 2010 to study aerosols (soot particles), followed by a comprehensive satellite in 2011 to monitor GHG gases; India to join elite club of countries to do so.
  4. India’s Forest and Tree Cover as a Carbon Sink. Research estimates the value of India’s forests as a carbon sink- assessment shows that they neutralize 11% of India’s annual GHG emissions Science & Research
  5. India’s GHG Emissions, Profile: India’s GHG Emission Pathways until 2030 under different assumptions made public; shows India will remain a minor per capita emitter even in 2010.

III. Crop genetic diversity

India stands seventh in the world in terms of contribution of species to agriculture and animal husbandry. In qualitative terms too, the contribution has been significant. The National Bureau of Soil Survey and Land Use Planning distinguished 20 broad agro ecological zones, based on natural features and crop growing periods. India has over 800 crop species and 320 wild relatives: millets (51); legumes (31); fruits (109); spices and condiments (27); vegetables (54); fiber crops (24); oil seeds, tea, coffee, tobacco and sugarcane (12); and medicinal plants (3,000). The National Gene Bank at NBPGR is primarily responsible for conservation of unique accessions on long-term basis, as base collections for posterity, predominantly in the form of seeds.

Study Kit for Central Armed Police Forces(AC)

UPSC परीक्षा ​: समसमायिकी वस्तुनिष्ठ प्रश्न, Hindi Current Affairs MCQ - 01 July 2018

IAS EXAM


UPSC परीक्षा ​: समसमायिकी वस्तुनिष्ठ प्रश्न, Hindi Current Affairs MCQ - 01 July 2018


Q.1- हाल ही में समाचार में देखी गई यशपाल समिति की सिफारिशें निम्नलिखित में से किस से संबंधित हैं?

(a) बीसीसीआई (BCCI) की सुधार के संबंध में
(b) भारत में उच्च शिक्षा प्रणाली में सुधार के संबंध में
(c) भारत में धार्मिक स्मारकों का प्रबंधन
(d) पूर्वी घाटों का संरक्षण

Q.2- निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा खिलाड़ी 1983 क्रिकेट विश्व कप में मैन ऑफ द मैच पुरस्कार जीता?

(a) कपिल देव
(b) मोहिंदर अमरनाथ
(c) दिलीप वेंगसरकर
(d) किरण मोरे

Q.3- भारत में निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा राज्य सरकारी संचालित समुदाय बैंकिंग प्रणाली (Government Run Community Milk Banking System) शुरू करने वाला पहला राज्य है?

(a) बिहार
(b) हरियाणा
(c) केरल
(d) राजस्थान

Q.4- निम्नलिखित स्मारकों / इमारतों में से कौन सा यूनेस्को की विश्व विरासत की स्थिति है?

(a) खजुराहो
(b) कोणार्क सूर्य मंदिर
(c) नीलगिरी माउंटेन रेलवे
(d) उपरोक्त सभी

Q.5- निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा संस्थान एलआईसी - आईडीबीआई बैंक सौदे की निगरानी कर रहा था?

(a) सेबी (SEBI)
(b) आईआरडीए (IRDA)
(c) आरबीआई (RBI)
(d) एफआईपीबी (FIPB)

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CAPF-AC (Assistant Commandant) Exam Study Material : Geography - Studying Environment

CAPF-AC (Assistant Commandant) Exam Study Material : Geography - Studying Environment

Environment & Ecology

Studying Environment:

Definition of Environmental Studies

  • Environmental science deals with every issue that affects a living organism. It is essentially a multidisciplinary approach that brings about an appreciation of our natural world and human impact on its integrity.

  • It is an applied science, as it seeks practical answers to the increasingly important question of how to make human civilization sustainable on the Earth’s finite resources. Its components include biology, geology, chemistry, physics, engineering, sociology, health, anthropology, economics, statistics, computers and philosophy.

  • Environmental science is a collective study of many subjects. It includes elements of agronomy (soil science), biology, botany, chemistry, climatology, ecology, entomology, geography, geology, hydrology, limnology, meteorology, oceanography, political science, psychology, zoology, medicine and human and animal health.

It also draws upon some specialized subjects such as biogeography, demography, economics, and toxicology. Thus, environmental studies constitute a multidisciplinary subject

केन्द्रीय सशस्त्र पुलिस बल (सहायक कमांडेंट) के लिये स्टडी किट

Study Kit for Central Armed Police Forces(AC)

UPSC Mains Exam Syllabus - French Optional


UPSC Mains Exam Syllabus - French Optional


PAPER-I:

Answers must be written in French except in the case of question requiring translation from French to English.

Section-A

1. Main trends in French Literature
a) Classicism
b) Rommanticism
c) Realism

2. Art in France
a) Romanticism
b) Realism
c) Impressionism

3. The Vth Republic
(a) De Gaulle and the Vth Republique
(b) May 1968
(c) Pompidou
(d) Giscard d' Estaing
(e) Mitterrand
(f) Chirac

4. Translation : French to English (2 passages of socio-politico-economic nature of 200 words each).

Section-B

1. Main trends in French Literature
a) Symbolism
b) Surrealism
c) Theatre of the Absurd

2. Art in French
a) Surrealism
b) Cubism
c) Abstract Painting

3. The Vth Republic
a) Parts politiques en France
b) Place et rôle du Président de la Ve Republique
c) Le gouvernement
d) Le Parlement
e) Le Senat

4. Translation : English to French 2 passages of socio-politico-economic nature of 200 words each.

IAS Mains General Studies Study Kit

UPSC परीक्षा ​: समसमायिकी वस्तुनिष्ठ प्रश्न, Hindi Current Affairs MCQ - 13 June 2018

IAS EXAM


UPSC परीक्षा ​: समसमायिकी वस्तुनिष्ठ प्रश्न, Hindi Current Affairs MCQ - 13 June 2018


Q1. कैटरीन (Katrin) प्रयोग के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें

1. वर्तमान में संयुक्त राज्य अमेरिका में कैटरीन प्रयोग किया जा रहा है
2. इसका उद्देश्य न्यूट्रिनो के द्रव्यमान को निर्धारित करना है।

उपरोक्त में से कौन सा कथनों सही / सही है

(A) केवल 1
(B) केवल 2
(C) दोनों
(D) उपरोक्त कोई नहीं

Q2. न्यूट्रीनो (Neutrint) के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें

1. न्यूट्रीनो पदार्थ का एकमात्र प्राथमिक कण होते हैं, जो विद्युत या मजबूत चार्ज नहीं लेते हैं।
2. वे विद्युत चुम्बकीय और मजबूत सम्बन्ध के बाध्य नहीं हो सकते हैं।

उपरोक्त में से कौन सा कथनों सही / सही है

(A) केवल 1
(B) केवल 2
(C) दोनों
(D) उपरोक्त कोई नहीं

Q3. भवानी नदी के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें

1. यह कावेरी नदी की एक सहायक है
2. यह केरल के साइलेंट वैली नेशनल पार्क से गुज़रता है।

उपरोक्त में से कौन सा कथनों सही / सही है

(A) केवल 1
(B) केवल 2
(C) दोनों
(D) उपरोक्त कोई नहीं

Q4. निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा देश सूडान की सीमा पर नहीं है

(A) मिस्र
(B) लीबिया
(C) इथियोपिया
(D) नाइजर

Q5. निम्नलिखित में से कौन सी जनजाति उत्तर पूर्व भारत के मूल निवासी नहीं हैं

(A) टोडा (Toda)
(B) नागा (Naga)
(C) राभा (Rabha)
(D) बोडो (Bodo)

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UPSC सामान्य अध्ययन (GS) प्रारंभिक परीक्षा (Pre) पेपर-1 स्टडी किट

UPSC Mains Exam Syllabus - Assamese Optional


UPSC Mains Exam Syllabus - Assamese Optional


PAPER-I:

(Answers must be written in Assamese)

Section-A:

Language:

(a) History of the origin and development of the Assamese language-its position among the Indo-Aryan Languagesperiods in its history.
(b) Developments of Assamese prose.
(c) Vowels and consonants of the Assamese languages-rules of phonetic changes with stress on Assamese coming down from Old Indo-Aryan.
(d) Assamese vocabulary-and its sources.
(e) Morphology of the language-conjugation- enclitic definitives and pleonastic suffixes.
(f) Dilectical divergences-the standard colloquial and the Kamrupi dialect in particulars.
(g) Assamese scripts-its evolution through the ages till 19th century A.D.

UPSC परीक्षा ​: समसमायिकी वस्तुनिष्ठ प्रश्न, Hindi Current Affairs MCQ - 12 June 2018

IAS EXAM


UPSC परीक्षा ​: समसमायिकी वस्तुनिष्ठ प्रश्न, Hindi Current Affairs MCQ - 12 June 2018


Q1. बिम्सटेक के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें

1. बिम्सटेक ने सार्क और आसियान सदस्यों के बीच अंतर-क्षेत्रीय सहयोग के लिए एक मंच स्थापित किया है।
2. यह सब-क्षेत्रीय संगठन बैंकॉक घोषणा के माध्यम से 6 जून 1997 को हुआ था।

उपरोक्त में से कौन सा कथन सही है

(A) केवल 1
(B) केवल 2
(C) दोनों
(D) उपरोक्त कोई नहीं

Q2. प्रधानमंत्री मत्रु वंदना योजना (PMMVY) के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें।

1. यह योजना राज्य सरकारों के साथ 60:40 लागत-साझाकरण आधार पर लागू की जा रही है।
2. यह परिवार के पहले जीवित बच्चे के लिए है क्योंकि आमतौर पर एक महिला की पहली गर्भावस्था उसे नई चुनौतियों और तनाव कारकों के बारे में बताती है।

उपरोक्त में से कौन सा कथन सही है

(A) केवल 1
(B) केवल 2
(C) दोनों
(D) उपरोक्त कोई नहीं

Q3. हाल ही में समाचार में शीत पूल सिद्धांत (Cold Pool Theory) देखा गया था। यह कहाँ जुड़ा हुआ है?

(A) सेमी कंडक्टर
(B) सुपर कंडक्टर
(C) बर्फ की पिघलने
(D) क्लाउड गतिशीलता

Q4. निम्नलिखित में अराल सागर किन दो देश के बीच स्थित है?

(A) कज़ाखस्तान और उजबेकिस्तान
(B) कज़ाखस्तान और तुर्कमेनिस्तान
(C) कज़ाखस्तान और तुर्की
(D) उजबेकिस्तान और तुर्कमेनिस्तान

Q5. 'सेवा भोज योजना' (Seva Bhoj Yojana) के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें

1. वित्त मंत्रालय नोडल मंत्रालय है
2. योजना धार्मिक और चैरिटेबल संस्थानों द्वारा सार्वजनिक, भक्तों के लिए भेदभाव किए बिना खाद्य, प्रसाद आदि पर सीजीएसटी और आईजीएसटी के केंद्रीय हिस्से की प्रतिपूर्ति करने की मांग करती है।

उपरोक्त में से कौन सा कथन सही है

(A) केवल 1
(B) केवल 2
(C) दोनों
(D) उपरोक्त कोई नहीं

UPSC सामान्य अध्ययन प्रारंभिक एवं मुख्य परीक्षा (Combo) Study Kit

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