1. On the outline map of World provided to you, mark the location of ALL of the following for which 1 (one) mark is given to each correct entry. Write in your answer script the significant geographical relevance or strategic importance of these locations, whether physical/commercial/ economical/ ecological /environmental /cultural in not more than 30 words for each entry. 3(three) marks are allotted for each write-up. 4×15=60
(a) Canterbury Plains
(b) Brunswick
(c) Tonle Sap
(d) Jeddah
(e) Bern
(f) Pampas
(g) Ural mountain
(h) Californian desert
(i) Chindwin
(j) Artesian Basin of Australia
(k) Falkland islands
(l) Zagreb
(m) Strait of Malacca
(n) Himadri
(o) Diego Garcia

2. Discuss the methods of measuring the world economic development. Also discuss the problems or limitations associated with such methods. 60

3. (a) “Nature has discriminated between regions while endowing them with natural resources.” How far do you agree with this statement? 30
(b) Discuss the strategies that can reduce the global regional imbalances. 30

4. Discuss the causes that can lead to famine. Also discuss the remedies to avert such situation. 60

5. Write about the following in about 250 words each: 15×4= 60
(a) Limits to growth
(b) Over-under-and optimum population
(c) Energy Crises
(d) Primate city and rank-size rule

6. Discuss the problems associated with urbanisation. Suggest remedies to o vercome such problems. 60

 7. (a) Discuss the environmental issues associated with rural settlements. 30
(b) Discuss the relevance of population theories in geography. 30

8. Discuss the causes and consequences of migration. 60

1. On the outline map of India provided to you, mark the location of ALL of the following for which 1 (one) mark is given to each correct entry. Write in your answer script the significant geographical relevance or strategic importance of these locations, whether physical/commercial/ economical/ ecological/ environmental/ cultural in not more than 30 words for each entry. 3(three) marks are allotted for each write-up. 4×15=60
(a) Karakoram Pass
(b) Barak
(c) Rae Bareilly
(d) Ankleshwar
(e) Loktak Lake
(f) Barren Island
(g) Jorhat
(h) Dharmashala
(i) Kapurthala
(j) Rana Pratap Sagar
(k) Amarkantak
(l) Durgapur
(m) Gulf of Mannar
(n) Korba
(o) Salem

2. “Road, railway, waterway, airway and pipeline networks play complementary roles in regional development.” Comment 60

3. (a) Discuss the growing importance of ports on national and foreign trade. 30
(b) “Indian space programme is underway to achieve maturity.” Discuss 30

4. Discuss the developments in communication and information technology and their impacts on economy and society. 60

5. Write about the following in about 250 words each: 15 × 4 = 60
(a) Indian trade policy
(b) Historical perspective of Indian society
(c) Export processing zones
(d) Linguistic regions of India

6. (a) Identify and discuss the major tribes living in the major tribal areas of India 30
(b) Highlight the problems faced by the tribal people in India and suggest suitable measures to bring them into the mainstream of development. 30

7. (a) Examine the population problems in India and suggest some measures to overcome them. 30
(b) Discuss the relevance of health indicators. 30

8. (a) Spatially analyse the skewed sex ratio in India. Suggest practical measures, which can be incorporated by the policy makers. 30
(b) Examine the problems faced by the religious minorities in India. Suggest strategies to integrate them further with the mainstream.

1. On the outline map of World provided to you, mark the location of ALL of the following for which 1 (one) mark is given to each correct entry. Write in your answer script the significant geographical relevance or strategic importance of these locations, whether physical/commercial/ economical/ ecological/ environmental/ cultural innot more than 30 words for each entry. 3(three) marks are allotted for each write-up. 4×15=60
(a) Nairobi
(b) Geneva
(c) Pustaz
(d) Khartoum
(e) Bali
(f) Aghulas current
(g) Kara Kum
(h) Mekong
(i) Kosovo
(j) Kiruna
(k) Lake Winnipeg
(l) Bay of Biscay
(m) Asuncion
(n) Auckland
(o) Kinshasa

2. Discuss with examples the global and regional ecological changes and imbalances. Outline strategies to mitigate the ill effects arisen due to these changes. 60

3. (a) How far do you agree with the fact that conservation of biodiversity is important for sustainable development? Comment 30
(b) Discuss the importance of environment policies. 30

4. “Nature dictates the behaviour of man”. How far do you agree with this statement, discuss with suitable examples. 60

5. Write about the following in about 250 words each: 15 × 4 = 60
(a) Environment Education and Legislation
(b) Relevance of concept of areal differentiation in geography
(c) Principle of ecology
(d) Environmentalism

6. (a) Discuss the importance of Human Development Index. 30
(b) Critically analyse the methodology adopted by the UNDP to measure the Human Development Index. 30

7. Examine the influence of languages, religions and secularisation in shaping the geographical landscape of the earth. 60

8. (a) Give a vivid account of cultural regions of the world. 30
(b) “Radical and Welfare approaches in geography are complementary to each other.” Comment 30

1. On the outline map of India provided to you, mark the location of ALL of the following for which 1 (one) mark is given to each correct entry. Write in your answer script the significant geographical relevance or strategic importance of these locations, whether physical/commercial/ economical/ ecological /environmental/ cultural in not more than 30 words for each entry. 3(three) marks are allotted for each write-up. 4×15=60
(a) Ramganga
(b) Nathu la
(c) Farakka
(d) Simlipal
(e) Sambhar Lake
(f) Mount Abu
(g) Makum
(h) Panchmarhi
(i) Nashik
(j) Nokrek
(k) Haldia
(l) Tarapur
(m) Nilgiris
(n) Hunza
(o) Renukoot

2. (a) Discuss the green revolution and its socioeconomic and ecological implications. 30
(b) Assess as to how second green revolution can mitigate the ill effects of the first green revolution. 30

3. (a) Discuss the emerging patterns of agricultural regionalization in India. 30
(b) Assess as to how agricultural regionalization affects the food production and food security in India. 30

4. (a) Discuss the significance of dry farming in India 30
(b) Examine the problems and prospects of agrobased industries in middle & lower Ganga plain. 30

5. Write about the following in about 250 words each: 15 × 4 = 60
(a) New industrial policies
(b) Assessment of Land capability and its utility in plan formulation.
(c) Examine the importance of Special Economic Zones
(d) Suggest measure to increase agricultural productivity in India

6. (a) Discuss the emerging patterns of industrial regionalisation in India. 30
(b) Assess as to how industrial regionalisation affects the economy and ecology in the country. 30

7. (a) Examine the problems and prospects of tourism including eco-tourism in India. 30
(b) Examine the role of animal husbandry in boosting the food production and food security in the country. 30

8. (a) “Government should disinvest its stake in public sector undertakings.” How far do you agree with this statement? 30
(b) Examine the role of industrial houses and complexes on economy and ecology of a region. 30

1. On the outline map of World provided to you, mark the location of ALL of the following for which 1 (one) mark is given to each correct entry. Write in your answer script the significant geographical relevance or strategic importance of these locations, whether physical/commercial/ economical/ ecological/ environmental/ cultural in not more than 30 words for each entry. 3(three) marks are allotted for each write-up. 4 × 15 = 60
(a) Gran Chaco
(b) Shanghai
(c) Dead Sea
(d) Dublin
(e) Vienna
(f) Selvas
(g) Tarim basin
(h) Atacama desert
(i) Ebro
(j) Katanga
(k) Haiti
(l) Juba
(m) Strait of Gibraltar
(n) Maitri
(o) Seychelles

2. Discuss the global climatic changes and role and response of man in climatic changes. 60

3. (a) Discuss the heat budget of Earth and outline the factors that are adding dynamicity to it. 30
(b) Discuss the similarities and differences between temperate and tropical cyclones. 30

4. (a) Discuss the Koppen’s classification of world climate. 30
(b) How does atmospheric stability and instability affects the weather of a region? Discuss with suitable examples. 30

5. Write about the following in about 250 words each: 15 × 4 = 60
(a) Applied climatology
(b) Soil profile
(c) Hydrological cycle
(d) Major gene pool centres

6. (a) Discuss the classification and distribution of soil over the Earth’s surface. 30
(b) Discuss the benefits of social and agro forestry. 30

7. Discuss the factors leading to soil degradation and suggest measures to combat w ith this chronic problem. 60

8. (a) Discuss the factors influencing the world distribution of plants and animals. 30
(b) Discuss the problems of deforestation and conservation measures. 30

Answer any three of the following (Each answer should not exceed 200 words) 20 × 3 = 60

Q.1 (a) “Whenever there is a breach of duty there is a cause of action in tort, Discuss.
(b) The doctrine of “alternative danger” is the extension of the doctrine of contributory negligence” Discuss ?
(c) “In tort the plaintiff wins his case only when he proves as to what particular tort the defendant has committed against him” examine
(d) Which one of the following two expressions is correct and why ? ‘Law of Torts ‘ or ‘Law of Tort’

Q.2 (a) The liability of joint tort feasors is joint and several. In the light of This statement discuss who are joint tort feasors and their liability with the help of illustrations and case law? 30
(b) Discuss the rule of strict liability with the help of relevant case law. Is there any difference between strict liability and absolute liability 30

Q.3 (a) “In the tort of negligence the question as to whether the defendant has acted as a reasonable man or not depends on many factors” Discuss? 30
(b) The defendant establishes a flour mill in the heart of a city adjacent to the plaintiff’s house in a residential area. Running of the mill causes vibrations to the house and unpleasant noise. The plaintiff sues the defendant and claims damages and injunction. The defendant argues that he has a freedom to establish his own trade and business and that his flourmill is also beneficial to a large number of residents in the area ? Decide. 30

Q.4 (a) What are the exceptions to the rule of strict liability ? Briefly examine each of them. 20 × 3 = 60
(b) Distinguish between the following:
(i) Libel and slander.
(ii) Public nuisance and private nuisance.

Q.5 Answer any three of the following (Each answer should not exceed 200 words). 20 × 3 = 60
(a) “The maxim Res Ipsa Liquitor is not a rule of law but a rule of evidence” explain and illustrate?
(b) Voilenti non fit injuria Discuss?
(c) Doctrine of remoteness of damages is based on some principle for determining the liability of defendants ? Discuss.
(d) Absolute liability is a apex points of justice in which no any exception lies. Discuss

Q.6 (a) Civil wrong are always not actionable what a basic principle by which if is teslified is ?
(b) State cannot gets immunity in all acts under principles of sovereigntygive your answer with decided cases? 30

Q.7 (a) Res Ipsa loquitor lignite is presumption against the defendants discuss the law points which is involved above principle? 30
(b) Assault and battery is a tort as well as offence discuss it? 30

Q.8 Differentiate between torts of the following: 15 × 4 = 60
(a) Melicious prosection and false imprisonment?
(b) tresspass and Nuisance?
(c) Private nuisance and public nuisance?
(d) Slander and Lebel?

1. Comment on any three of the following statements in about 200 words each: 20 × 3 = 60
(a) Mansabdari System.
(b) Mughal architecture.
(c) Pahari Painting.
(d) Emergence of Afghan power and war of Panipat, 1761

2. “The recurring famine were the inevitable consequence of the British policy and expose the real character of the paternal solitude for the peasantry on the part of the British administration.” Examine this statement critically. 60

3. (a) What is meant by ‘un-British rule’ in India? How did the Indian nationalists react against it? 30
(b) Write a critique on the impact of the Drain theory of Dadabhai Naoroji in the growth of economic nationalism. 30

4. (a) Define the policy of subsidiary alliance and doctrine of Lapse. 30.
(b) What were the factors behind British success against Indian powers?

5. Write a brief note on the following (not more than 100 words) 10 × 6 = 60
(a) Sawai Jai Sing the astronomer,
(b) Dara Sikoh
(c) Lord Auckland & Sindh
(d) Aryasamaj
(e) Mysore under Tipu Sultan
(f) Deindustrialisation

6. Discuss the main features of permanent settlement. Absentee landlordism was consequential feature of Bengal’s permanent land settlements. 60

7. (a) Characterise the main features of Indian Renaissance. 30
(b) The name of Raja Rammohan Roy stands foremost in the field of religious and social reforms. Elucidate. 30

8. What were the causes, nature and impact of the Revolt of 1857? Elaborate.? 60

1. Mark the following places on the map supplied to you and write short descriptive notes on the places plotted by you on the map: 20 × 3 = 60
(i) Jalalabad
(ii) Daultabad
(iii) Kamtapura
(iv) Allahabad
(v) Mursidabad
(vi) Kara Manikpur,
(vii) Chanderi
(viii) Mandu
(ix) Multan
(x) Devgiri
(xi) Jaunpur
(xii) Sasaram
(xiii) Asirgarh
(xiv) Hampi
(xv) Ahmednagar
(xvi) Amarkot
(xvii) Fatehpur Sikri
(xviii) Golkunda
(xix) Ujjain
(xx) Raichur

2. Assess the impact of the market reforms of Alauddin Khalji on contemporary economy and society 60

3. Muhammad-Bin-Tughlak was an extraordinarily intelligent man but his moves were not well timed. Assess this statement. 60

4. Firoz-Shah-Tughlak was a weak emperor but somehow he managed to survive 40 years on the throne and became very popular for his concessions and public works. Analyse. 60

5. Write a short notes on following (not more than 100 words) 10 × 6 = 60
(a) Corpsfourty
(b) Amir Khusrau
(c) Ziauddin Barani
(d) Hemu
(e) Hasan Gangu
(f) Chaitanya

6. What were the causes of rise of the Bhakti and Sufi movement? What impact did Kabir and Nanak leave on Indian society and culture? 60

7. (a) Akbar built the mughal empire by enlisting the support of the Rajputs, Aurangzeb destroyed it by alienating the rajputs. Do you agree? 30
(b) Write a precise essay on Akbar religious policy 30

8. (a) What are the distinguishing components of the 18th century debate? 30
(b) Marathas were restricted by their geopolitical liimitation from becoming the premier power of India. Examine. 30

1. Comment on any three of the following statements in about 200 words each: 20 × 3 = 60
(a) Post Mauryan period was a ‘dark age’
(b) Sangam literature
(c) Sankaracharya’s Vedanta
(d) Kalhan the historian

2. Examine the information of fahien about political, religious, social and economic condition of India. How far is it true that Gupta period was ‘Golden Age’? 60

3. (a) Economic condition of India and Foreign trade after Guptas. Explain 30
(b) Harsh was the last great Hindu emperor. Analyse. 30

4. Muslim invasion was the cause of a political vacuum created by the triangular conflict between the Rashtrakutas, Gurjara Pratiharas and Palas. Explain. 30

5. Comment on any three of the following statements in about 200 words each: 20 × 3 = 60
(a) Social stratification during Rajput period .
(b) Indian feudal system.
(c) Pallav Administration.
(d) Local self governance under the chollas.

6. (a) What were the causes of defeat of rajputas at hands of muslim invadors? 30
(b) Explain Various types of temple architecture. 30

7. Attempt a critical essay of the Indian science and civilization in the light of al-beruni’s writing what merits and drawbacks, do you find in his account? 60

8. (a) How did arrival of Islam in India effected Hindu religion and society? 30
(b) What was the situation in scientific and technological developments in India up to C. A. D 750. 30

1. Mark the following places on the map supplied to you and write short descriptive notes on the places plotted by you on the map
(i) Harappa
(ii) Lothal
(iii) Mohenjodaro
(iv) Mirzapur
(v) Daimabad
(vi) Sannati
(vii) Koldhihwa
(viii) Mehargarh
(ix) Burzhome
(x) Dhollavira
(xi) Indraprastha
(xii) Ahichattra
(xiii) Kashi
(xiv) Gandhar
(xv) Magadh
(xvi) Kausambi
(xvii) Kapilvastu
(xviii) Kushinagar
(xix) Vaishali
(xx) Kundalvan

2. Discuss the sources and approaches to study early Indian history 60

3. Define distribution and significance of pre- Harappan era lead way back to neolithic phase with special reference to pastoral and agricultural communities. 60

4. (a) Analyse the causes of decline of Indus valley civilization. 30
(b) Was Indus Valley civilization an urban civilization? Give evidences in support of your view. 30

5. Write short essays in not more than 200 words each on any three of the following topics: 20 × 3 = 60
(a) The religion of Indus valley civilization
(b) Rigvedic religion
(c) Later vedic society
(d) Brahmans and Sanhitas

6. Teachings of Mahavira and Budha were the demand of the time. How did Budha was more practical in the approach than Mahavira? 60

7. (a) Discuss the process and causes of rise of Mahajanpadas. 30
(b) How did Magadh had an upper hand and started imperialism? 30

8. (a) Pair of chankaya-Chandragupta did the mega task of making a pan India empire under Mauryas first ever in Indian history. Explain. 30
(b) How did the policy of Ashoka was much ahead of its time and can get along very well in present foreign policy of any country? 30

Special Class Railway Apprentices Examination - 2012

Candidates may apply Online by using the website http://www.upsconline.nic.in Detailed instructions for filling up online applications are available on the above mentioned website. The applicants are advised to submit only single application, however if due to any unavoidable situation, if he/she submits another/multiple applications, then he/she must ensure that application with the higher RID is complete in all respects like applicants details, examination centre, photograph, signature, fee etc. The applicants who are submitting multiple applications should note that only the applications with higher RID (Registration ID) shall be entertained by the Commission and fee paid against one RID shall not be adjusted against any other RID.

All candidates, whether already in Government Service, or in Government owned industrial undertakings or other similar organisations or in private employment should submit their applications direct to the Commission. Persons already in Government service, whether in a permanent or temporary capacity or as work charged employees other than casual or daily rated employees or those serving under Public Enterprises are however, required to inform in writing their Head of Office/Department that they have applied for the Examination. Candidates should note that in case a communication is received from their employer by the Commission withholding permission to the candidates applying for/appearing at the examination, their applications will be liable to be rejected/candidature will be liable to be cancelled.

NOTE 1 : While filling in his/her application form, the candidate should carefully decide about his/her choice for the centre. More than one application from a candidate giving different centres will not be accepted in any case. If any candidate appears at a centre other than the one indicated by the Commission in his/her Admission Certificate, the papers of such a candidate will not be valued and his/her candidature will be liable to cancellation. Candidates are not required to submit along with their applications any certificate in support of their claims regarding Age, Educational Qualifications, Scheduled Castes/ Scheduled Tribes and Other Backward Classes etc. The candidates applying for the examination should ensure that they fulfil all the eligibility conditions for admission to the Examination. Their admission at all the stages of examination for which they are admitted by the Commission viz. Written Examination and Interview Test will be purely provisional, subject to their satisfying the prescribed eligibility conditions. If on verification at any time before or after the Written Examination or Interview Test, it is found that they do not fulfil any of the eligibility conditions, their candidature for the Examination will be cancelled by the Commission.

Special Class Railway Apprentices Examination

Candidates applying Online (excepting Female/SC/ST/PH candidates who are exempted from payment of fee) are required to pay a fee of Rs. 100/- (Rupees One Hundred Only) either by remitting the money in any Branch of SBI by Cash, or by using net banking facility of SBI or by using Visa/Master Credit/Debit Card.

Special Class Railway Apprentices Examination

(I) Nationality:

A candidate must be either:
(a) A citizen of India, or
(b) a subject of Nepal, or
(c) a subject of Bhutan, or
(d) a Tibetan refugee who came over to India before 1st January, 1962 with the intention of permanently settling in India. or (e) a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka, East African countries of Kenya, Uganda, The United Republic of Tanzania, Zambia, Malawi, Zaire, Ethiopia or from Vietnam with the intention of permanently settling in India. Provided that a candidate belonging to categories (b), (c), (d) and (e) above shall be a person in whose favour a certificate of eligibility has been issued by the Government of India.

A candidate in whose case a certificate of eligibility is necessary, may be admitted to the examination but the offer of appointment may be given only after the necessary eligibility certificate has been issued to him by the Government of India.

(II) Age Limits :

(a) A candidate must have attained the age of 17 years and must not have attained the age of 21 years on 1st January, i.e. he/she must have been born not earlier than 2nd January, 1991 and not later than 1st January, 1995.
(b) The upper age limit is relaxable as follows:
(i) upto a maximum of five years if a candidate belongs to a Scheduled Caste or a Scheduled Tribe.

(ii) upto a maximum of three years in the case of candidates belonging to Other Backward Classes who are eligible to avail of reservation applicable to such candidates. ‘‘The closing date fixed for the receipt of the application will be treated as the date for determining the OBC status (including that of creamy layer) of the candidates.’’

(iii) upto a maximum of five years if a candidate had ordinarily been domiciled in the State of Jammu & Kashmir during the period from the 1st January, 1980 to the 31st day of December, 1989.

(iv) upto a maximum of three years in the case of Defence Services personnel disabled in operations during hostilities with any foreign country or in a disturbed area and released as a consequence thereof:

(v) upto a maximum of five years in the case of ex-servicemen including Commissioned Officers and ECOs/ SSCOs who have rendered at least five years Military Service as on 1st January and have been released(1) on completion of assignment (including those whose assignment is due to be completed within one year from 1st January) otherwise than by way of dismissal or discharge on account of misconduct or inefficiency, or (2) on account of physical disability attributable to Military Service, or (3) on invalidment.

(vi) Upto a maximum of five years in the case of ECOs/SSCOs who have completed an initial period of assignment of five years of Military Service as on 1st January and whose assignment has been extended beyond five years and in whose case the Ministry of Defence issues a certificate that they can apply for civil employment and that they will be released on three month's notice on selection from the date of receipt of offer of appointment.

Special Class Railway Apprentices Examination

SYLLABUS (Paper - 3)

MATHEMATICS:
1. Algebra: Concept of a set, Union and Intersection of sets, Complement of a set, Null set, Universal set and Power set, Venn diagrams and simple applications. Cartesian product of two sets, relation and mapping — examples, Binary operation on a set — examples. Representation of real numbers on a line.
Complex numbers: Modulus, Argument, Algebraic operations on complex numbers. Cube roots of unity. Binary system of numbers, Conversion of a decimal number to a binary number and vice-versa. Arithmetic, Geometric and Harmonic progressions. Summation of series involving A.P., G.P., and H.P.. Quadratic equations with real co- fficients. Quadratic expressions: extreme values. Permutation and Combination, Binomial theorem and its applications.

Matrices and Determinants: Types of matrices, equality, matrix addition and scalar multiplication - properties. Matrix multiplication — non-commutative and distributive property over addition. Transpose of a matrix, Determinant of a matrix. Minors and Cofactors. Properties of determinants. Singular and non-singular matrices. Adjoint and Inverse of a square-matrix, Solution of a system of linear equations in two and three variables- limination method, Cramers rule and Matrix inversion method (Matrices with m rows and n columns where m, n < to 3 are to be considered). Idea of a Group, Order of a Group, Abelian Group. Identitiy and inverse elements- Illustration by simple examples.

Special Class Railway Apprentices Examination

SYLLABUS (Paper - 2)

(I) PHYSICS:

• Length measurements using vernier, screw gauge, spherometer and optical lever.
• Measurement of time and mass.
• Straight line motion and relationships among displacement, velocity and acceleration.
• Newton's Laws of Motion, Momentum, impulse, work, energy and power.
• Coefficient of friction.
• Equilibrium of bodies under action of forces. Moment of a force, couple. Newton’s Law of Gravitation. Escape velocity. Acceleration due to gravity.
• Mass and Weight; Centre of gravity, Uniform circular motion, centripetal force, simple Harmonic motion. Simple pendulum.
• Pressure in a fluid and its variation with depth. Pascal’s Law. Principle of Archimedes.
• Floating bodies, Atmospheric pressure and its measurement.
• Temperature and its measurement. Thermal expansion, Gas laws and absolute temperature.
• Specific heat, latent heats and their measurement. Specific heat of gases.
• Mechanical equivalent of heat. Internal energy and First law of thermodynamics, Isothermal and adiabatic changes. Transmission of heat; thermal conductivity. Wave motion; Longitudinal and transverse waves. Progressive and stationary waves, Velocity of sound in gas and its dependence on various factors. Resonance phenomena (air columns and strings).
• Reflection and refraction of light. Image formation by curved mirrors and lenses, Microscopes and telescopes. Defects of vision.
• Prisms, deviation and dispersion, Minimum deviation. Visible spectrum. Field due to a bar magnet, Magnetic moment, Elements of Earth’s magnetic field. Magnetometers.
• Dia, para and ferromagnetism.
• Electric charge, electric field and potential, Coulomb’s Law.
• Electric current; electric cells, e.m.f. resistance, ammeters and voltmeters. Ohm’s law; resistances in series and parallel, specific resistance and conductivity. Heating effect of current.
• Wheatstone’s bridge, Potentiometer.
• Magnetic effect of current; straight wire, coil and solenoid electromagnet; electric bell.
• Force on a current-carrying conductor in magnetic field; moving coil galvanometers; conversion to ammeter or voltmeter.
• Chemical effects of current; Primary and storage cells and their functioning, Laws of electrolysis.
• Electromagnetic induction; Simple A.C. and D.C. generators. Transformers, Induction coil, Cathode rays, discovery of the electron, Bohr model of the atom. Diode and its use as a rectifier.
• Production, properties and uses of X-rays.
• Radioactivity; Alpha, Beta and Gamma rays.
• Nuclear energy; fission and fusion, conversion of mass into energy, chain reaction.

Special Class Railway Apprentices Examination

SYLLABUS (Paper - 1)

(I) ENGLISH: The questions will be designed to test the candidates' understanding and command of the language.

(II) GENERAL KNOWLEDGE: The questions will be designed to test a candidate’s general awareness of the environment around him/her and its application to society. The standard of answers to questions should be as expected of students of standard 12 or equivalent.

Man and his environment: Evolution of life, plants and animals, heredity and environment-Genetics, cells, chromosomes, genes.
Knowledge of the human body-nutrition, balanced diet, substitute foods, public health and sanitation including control of epidemics and common diseases. Environmental pollution and its control. Food adulteration, proper storage and preservation of food grains and finished products, population explosion, population control. Production of food and raw materials. Breeding of animals and plants, artificial insemination, manures and fertilizers, crop protection measures, high yielding varieties and green revolution, main cereal and cash crops of India.

Solar system and the earth. Seasons, Climate, Weather, Soil—its formation, erosion. Forests and their uses. Natural calamities cyclones, floods, earthquakes, volcanic eruptions. Mountains and rivers and their role in irrigation in India. Distribution of natural resources and industries in India. Exploration of under—ground minerals including Oil Conservation of natural resources with particular reference to the flora and fauna of India.

History, Politics and Society in India: Vedic, Mahavir, Budhdha, Mauryan, Sunga, Andhra, Kushan. Gupta ages (Mauryan Pillars, Stupa Caves, Sanchi, Mathura and Gandharva Schools, Temple architecture, Ajanta and Ellora). The rise of new social forces with the coming of Islam and establishment of broader contacts. Transition from feudalism to capitalism. Opening of European contacts. Establishment of British rule in India. Rise of nationalism and national struggle for freedom culminating in Independence.

Constitution of India and its characteristic features: Democracy, Secularism, Socialism, equality of opportunity and Parliamentary form of Government.

1. Comment on any Three of the following questions in not more than 200 words each: 20 × 3 = 60 Marks
(a) Comment: “The volatile competitive environment of both private and public organizations is subject to fundamental global-local debate”.
(b) Comment: “…………..Politics and Principles have seldom gone together……………..if at all they did, it was generally in the nature of an
exception, or that the principle itself was distorted to suit the political objective”.
(c) Comment: “Information is regarded as the oxygen of democracy. It invigorates where it percolates”.
(d) Comment: “Democratic policing is both a process and an outcome”.

2. Discuss the role of NGOs as the Non-State Actor, Government-NGOs relations and problems affecting the performance of NGOs in India. 60 Marks

3. Discuss relevance of development issues to the environment and, legislative measures and administrative action of the Government of India for the protection of overall environment. 60 Marks

4. Disaster management studies have again and again highlighted the magical transformation of administration from a soulless machine to a committed, humane and cohesive enterprise. During the course of relief management and rehabilitation ,the entire machine of governance functioned in unison. Explain 60 Marks

5. Comment on any Three of the following questions in not more than 200 words each: 20 × 3 = 60 Marks
(a) Comment: “ The fallout of ‘globalization’ in India’s case is being closely watched”.
(b) Comment: “New localism emphasizes the devolution of managerial power over political power”.
(c) Comment: “Social Audit is basically a scrutiny  of the public utility against its social relevance”
(d) Comment: “Civil servants are the servants of the state and not of the government.”

6. Discuss techniques of centralization and conflict of forces within Union-State-Local relations in India. 60 Marks

7. Discuss the points of similarities and dissimilarities between Sarkaria Commission and Punchhi Commission on Centre-state relations and also explain to what extent Punchhi Commission modified, corrected and followed the recommendations of Sarkaria Commission. 60 Marks

8. Write short notes on the following: 10 × 6 = 60 Marks
(a) Report of the Secretariat Reorganisation Committee(1947)
(b) Report on the Reorganisation of the Machinery of Government(1949)
(c) Mayor-in-Council form of Urban Local Government
(d) Politics and Administration with special reference to city management
(e) Rural-Urban Relationship Committee(1963-66)
(f) National Commission on Urbanisation(1985)