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(Download) CS (MAIN) EXAM:2018  ENGLISH LITERATURE (paper-2)


Q1. Critically comment on the following in about 150 words each, focusing on the context : 10x5=50 marks

(a) In the nightmare of the dark
All the dogs of Europe bark.
And the living nations wait
Each sequestered in its hate.
(W.H. Auden) 10 marks

(b) With an alien people clutching their gods.
I should be glad of another death,
(T.S. Eliot) 10 marks

(c) The best lack all conviction, while the worst
Are full of passionate intensity.
(W.B Yeats) 10 marks

(d) Yet still they leave us holding wretched stalks
Of disappointment, for, though nothing balks
Each big approach, leaning with brasswork prinked
Each rope distinct.
(Philip Larkin) 10 marks

(e) And he left us
A changed mother
And more than
One annual ritual.
(A.K. Ramanujan) 10 marks

Q2. Answer the following:
(a) Auden's The Shield of Achilles is a critique of contemporary culture. Elucidate. 15 marks
(b) Comment on the ending of Look Back in Anger. Does it look like being where we started or, is there indeed a hopeful note ? 15 marks
(c) The Love Song of J. Alfred Prufrock epitomizes the frustrations and inertia of the modern cra, Justify the statement. 20 marks

Q3. Answer the following:
(a) Explicate the significance of symbols used by Yeats with reference to the poems, Easter 1976, The Second Coming and Byzantium. 15 marks
(b) "Larkin combines wistful sadness, amusement, respect for the commonplace and a deep compassion." Discuss with reference to some of his poems. 15 marks
(c) "The central weakness of Modernism is that in its pursuit of a more complex sense of reality it fails in coherence." Do you agree ? Justify your answer with some illustrations from twentieth century poetry and drama. 20 marks

Q4. Answer the following:
(a) Beckett called Waiting for Godot a 'tragicomedy. Do you agree with this classification ? If not, how would you classify the play? 15 marks
(b) "It is the synthesis of Ramanujan's perception of the external world with the world of his inner imaginative response which lends an extraordinary meaning to his poems." Discuss with reference to the poems prescribed for study. 15 marks
(c) Do you find the angry young man, Jimmy Porter's attitude towards the society credible ? Is it fully worked out and resolved in the drama ? Give reasons for your answer. 20 marks

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains 2015: English (Paper -1 & 2) Literature Subjects Paper

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains 2015: English (Paper -1 & Paper-2) Literature Subjects Paper

Subject: English (Paper -1 & 2) Literature Subjects

Exam Date: 23rd December 2015


English Literature (Paper-1)


1. Write short notes on each of the following. Each question should be answered in about 150 words: 10x5=50 marks

(a) Postcolonial Reading of The Tempest. 10 marks
(b) Paradise Lost tries to “justify the ways of God to man”. Comment. 10 marks
(c) Revolutionary Spirit in English Romantic Poetry. 10 marks
(d) Examples of any two conceits from Donne’s poems. 10 marks
(e) Victorian compromise in “In Memoriam”. 10 marks

2.(a) Analyse the psyche of “illegitimate” Edmund with reference to the plot of King Lear. How does he try to overturn his destiny and with what success ? 15 marks
(b) In what ways did John Donne break away from the contemporary poetic traditions which made him so original and different ? Write a reasoned answer with illustrations from the text. 20 marks
(c) How does Alfred Tennyson handle nature in In Memoriam. 15 marks

3. (a) Do you think that the great theme of Paradise Lost is unquestioning obedience to the behests, implicit in the creative order, of an omnipotent God ? Discuss in the light of the contemporary Puritan philosophy. 20 marks
(b) Would you consider that the exposure of immoderate female vanity is the motivating impulse behind The Rape of the Lock. Justify your answer with proper evidence(s) from the text. 15 marks
(c) Comment on the role of Torvald Helmer in A DolL's House. Why do you think he is taken by surprise at Nora’s rebellion ? 15 marks

4.(a) Discuss the relationship of ‘Man’, ‘Nature’ and ‘Society’ with reference to the poems of William Wordsworth prescribed in your syllabus. 15 marks
(b) Present a feminist reading of A DolL's House. 20 marks
(c) The Rape of the Lock demonstrates “What mighty contests rise from trivial things” ? Discuss. 15 marks


5. Study the following poem and answer the questions which follow. Each answer should be in around 60-80 words : 10x5=50 marks

Give me more love, or more disdaine; The Torrid, or the frozen Zone, Bring equall ease unto my paine; The temperate affords me none : Either extreame, of love, or hate, Is sweeter than a calme estate.

Give me a storme; if it be love, Like Danae in that golden showre I swimme in pleasure; if it prove Disdaine, that torrent will devoure My vulture-hopes; and he’s possest Of Heaven, that’s but from Hell releast: Then crowne my joyes, or cure my paine; Give me more love, or more disdaine.

(a) Consider the implications of the line - “Give me more love, or more disdaine”; and comment. 10 marks
(b) What sort of person, do you think, is the speaker of the poem ? 10 marks
(c) Critically comment on the imagery of ‘The Torrid’ and “the frozen Zone”. 10 marks
(d) Explain the lines- “Give me a storme; if it be love, Like Danae in that golden shower I swimme in pleasure;” 10 marks
(e) Explain - “and he’s possest Of Heaven, that’s but from Hell released” : 10 marks

6.(a) Discuss Gulliver's Travels as a tale with an element of the ridiculous and the fantastic which has a universal appeal. Elaborate 15 marks
(b) In Pride and Prejudice first impressions, illusions and subjective opinions give way to attachment, balance, reasonableness and, more painfully to humiliating reassessments. Discuss. 20 marks
(c) Dr Johnson called Tom Jones an “immoral text”. Would you agree ? Write a reasoned answer. 15 marks

7.(a) In Tom Jones, Fielding’s scathing satire is reserved for the London upper classes. Discuss. 15 marks
(b) The novel Hard Times depends on the opposition between Fact and Fancy, the contrast which gives it both tension and unity. Discuss. 20 marks
(c) The Adventures of Huckleberry Finn shows the growth of consciousness of an innocent young orphan into an adolescent who understands the evil world around him. Discuss. 15 marks

8.(a) Discuss the significance and relevance of the sub-title “A Pure Woman” appended by Thomas Hardy to Tess of the /)’ Urbervilles. How did the debate reveal the attitudes of Victorian society towards morality ? 15 marks
(b) How do patriarchist rules control and define the life of Maggie Tulliver in Mill on the Floss ? Discuss. 20 marks
(c) How does Mark Twain address the question of slavery in Huckleberry Finn ? Discuss. 15 marks

English Literature (Paper-2)


l. Critically comment on the following passages in their contexts in about 150 words each :- 5x10=50 marks

(a) All changed, changed utterly : A terrible beauty is bom. (W.B. Yeats) 10 marks
(b) I have heard the mermaids singing, each to each I do not think that they will sing to me. (T.S. Eliot) 10 marks
(c) Was he free ? Was he happy ? The question is absurd : Had anything been wrong, we should certainly have heard. (W.H. Auden) 10 marks
(d) This was Mr. Bleaney’s room. He stayed The whole time he was at the Bodies, till They moved him. (Philip Larkin) 10 marks
(e) The new poets still quoted the old poets, but no one spoke in verse of the pregnant woman. (A.K. Ramanujan) 10 marks

2. Answer all of the following :- 15+15+20=50 marks

(a) Auden asserts in “The Memory of W.B. Yeats” that poetry is a purely aesthetic and not an ethical or religious practice. Discuss. 15 marks
(b) What do the images, “Astride of a grave and a difficult birth; down in the hole, lingeringly, the gravedigger puts on the forceps; we have time to grow old” suggest in Waiting for Godot ? 15 marks
(c) All Yeats touched he turned into symbols : Ireland, Byzantium, Maud Gonne, The Easter Rising, The Tower — Discuss. 20 marks

3. Answer all of the following :-15+15+20=50 marks

(a) Examine Philip Larkin’s bleak view of human life and relationship with reference to his poems. 15 marks
(b) Discuss Eliot’s religious-philosophical reflections on time and consciousness in “Burnt Norton”. 15 marks
(c) Deconstruction is not synonymous with destruction, it is in fact closer to the original meaning of the word, “analysis” which originally means to undo. Discuss. 20 marks

4. Answer all of the following :- 15+15+20=50 marks

(a) Discuss how Jimmy’s frenetic quest for real life destroys the lives of those to whom he is closest. 15 marks
(b) The mother figuring in Ramanujan’s poem: becomes a representative of all that is left behind, lost and never found. Discuss. 15 marks
(c) The characters in Waiting for Godot go on ; in the universe of this play “go on” leads no where — Elucidate. 20 marks


5. Write short critical notes on the following in about 150 words each :— 5x10=50 marks

(a) The novel, A Portrait of the Artist as a Young Man, is structured in the manner of a classical drama. 10 marks
(b) “Oedipus complex” as the basis of Sons and Lovers. 10 marks
(c) Mrs. Dalloway is constructed in terms of the two dimensions of space and time. 10 marks
(d) Ratna [Kanthapura] is a symbol of some aspects of the social injustice done to women. 10 marks
(e) Naipaul’s use of imagery and symbolism to enhance the meaning of his novel A House for Mr. Biswas. 10 marks

6. Answer all of the following :— 15+15+20=50 marks

(a) How does Conrad depict the difficulty of finding a secure moral base in the ambience of political violence, economic oppression, isolation and existential dread in Lord Jim ? 15 marks
(b) Lawrence’s writings transcribe the most elusive sensations and emotions — the moments of life of men and women and in the physical world of nature. Discuss. 15 marks
(c) Forster’s Passage to India exists on two plains and it has different meanings on different plains. Elaborate. 20 marks

7. Answer all of the following :— 20+10+20=50 marks

(a) Joyce freed himself from socially structured emotions — by means of creating art as a new religion he detached fiction from one particular ideological base. Discuss with reference to Portrait of an Artist as a Young Man. 20 marks
(b) Describe Naipaul’s depiction of humour in raucous scenes of life in Mr. Biswas’s career and in the language of the characters. 10 marks
(c) With something of the passion of the mystic Virginia Woolf in Mrs. Dalloway values reality of the perceptive moment and of inner wonder. Elaborate. 20 marks

8. Answer all of the following :— 20+15+15=50

(a) How does the narrative of Kanthapura establish the parameters of the story within old and new legends ? 20 marks
(b) How does E.M. Forster portray the common racial tensions and prejudices between the Indians and the British in his A Passage to India ? 15 marks
(c) Argue why Lord Jim is considered the Hamlet of Joseph Conrad. 15 marks

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UPSC Exam Complete Study Materials (Pre, Mains, Interview COMBO Study Kit)

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains 2015: Zoology (Paper -1 & 2) Optional Question Paper

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains 2015: Zoology (Paper -1 & Paper-2) Optional Question Paper

Subject: Zoology (Paper -1 & 2) Optional

Exam Date: 23rd December 2015

Zoology (Paper -1)

1. Answer the following in about 150 words each :. 10x5=50 marks

(a) What are minor phyla ? Enlist minor phyla with suitable examples. 10 marks
(b) What is Jatinga bird mystery ? Is it related with bird migration ? Explain. 10 marks
(c) ‘Herdmania is a primitive and degenerate descendent of ancestral chordates’. Explain. 10  marks
(d) Apis is known for social behaviour. Discuss. 10  marks
(e) Polychaetes exhibit different modes of life adapted to habitats. Elaborate the statement. 10 marks

2.(a) Give an account of locomotion in Protozoa indicating locomotor organelle with . suitable examples. ' 15 marks
(b) What are corals and coral reefs ? Describe different types of coral reefs and their formation indicating different theories. 15 marks
(c) Enumerate functions and main components of endoskeleton of vertebrates. Give an account of types of jaw suspensorium in vertebrates with suitable diagrams. 20 marks

3.(a) Discuss parasitism in ‘Copepoda’. Comment on structural peculiarities of parasitic copepods. 15 marks
(b) Give an illustrated account of the reproductive system, life history and development of Asterias. 15 marks
(c) Give an account of locomotion in Pisces indicating the role of muscles and fins. How do some fish fly ? Comment. 20 marks

4.(a) ‘Sphenodon is the most primitive and crocodilians are most advanced of all living Reptiles’. Discuss the statement. 15 marks
(b) Give an account of fresh water, egg laying and pouched mammals with suitable examples. 15 marks
(c) Give an account of gills and accessory respiratory organs in vertebrates with suitable examples. 20 marks


5. Answer the following in about 150 words each: 10x5=50 marks

(a) What is ‘Ganga action plan ? Explain. 10 marks
(b) Explain the role of pheromones in alarm spreading. 10 marks
(c) "Biotechnology is a vital tool in modem forensic science’. Comment. 10 marks
(d) Differentiate between one-way and two-way analysis of variance (ANOVA). Comment on its applications in biostatistics. 10 marks
(e) Electrophoresis is a valuable tool in resolving cryptic-species complexes. Discuss. 10 marks

6.(a) Discuss social hierarchies in Primates. 15 marks
(b) What is meant by distribution ? Explain patterns of distribution in natural populations. 15 marks
(c) What are biogeochemical cycles? Discuss nitrogen cycle indicating the role of atmospheric N-fixation, the role of bacteria and the impact of human activity. 20 marks

7.(a) What is chromosome painting ? Comment on its principles and scope. , 15 marks
(b) Give an account of causes and consequences of pollution of aquatic resources and the problem of cultural eutrophication. Suggest measures for abatement of water degradation. 15 marks
(c) Define biodiversity hot-spot and mention the criteria of its selection. Write about biodiversity hot-spots of the Indian subregion giving their saLIent features. 20 marks

8.(a) Explain its use for improvement of human welfare. 15 marks
(b) Discuss the status and scope of prawn culture in India. Mention commercially viable and cultivable species of freshwater and brackish water prawns. 15 marks
(c) What are transgenic animals ? How are they produced ? Explain their contributions to human welfare. Comment on ethical concerns in relation to transgenesis. 20 marks

Zoology (Paper -2)

1.(a) List and illustrate the components of biological membranes in terms of . their arrangement, role in the maintenance of feudicity, permeability and signal reception and translation. 10 marks
(b) Arrange the sequential enzymatic participations in DNA replication. Describe their specific role in each step. 10 marks
(c) Define operon. Give the similarities and differences between tryptophan and arabinose operon, with a focus on attenuation. 10 marks
(d) What is mutagenesis ? Explain with diagrams how mutagens cause genetic changes. 10 marks
(e) Narrate, with suitable examples the use of ribozymes in health care and agriculture.  10 marks

2.(a) What are Rb and proteins ? How do they regulate the cell cycle ? How do they protect the cell from carcinogenesis ? 15 marks
(b) Illustrate the different theories regarding the origin of life with special reference to protein evolution. 20 marks
(c) Define the characters of DNA vectors. Explain with diagrams how these vectors function in a variety of situations. 15 marks

3.(a) “Isolation is the key factor in evolution.” Justify the statement giving suitable examples from geographical and reproductive isolation. 15 marks
(b) Give the characteristic features of ancestors of elephants and give progressive evolutions that have occurred during various geological times resulting in the emergence of the modern day elephant. 20 marks
(c) Define mimicry. How does it occur ? How has mimicry evolved in the animal kingdom ? Give examples. 15 marks

4.(a) The Genotype of the parent is as under :

2n + XhY x 2n + X0xh

Indicate the type of Gametes that will be formed and character represented by their Offsprings. Also indicate whether the parents are carriers or free from disorder.

Find out:

(i) Percentage of carriers.
(ii) Percentage of haemophilic sons and daughters.
(iii) Percentage of normal offsprings.

Why does haemophilia occur ? Give the symptoms of haemophilia. How is haemophilia genetically inherited ? 20 marks

(b) What are giant chromosomes ? Name them. State their locations and illustrate their structures. How do they function ? 15 marks
(c) What is ICZN ? Explain the principle, scope and limitations in the present day scenario of nomenclature. 15 marks

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains 2015: Psychology (Paper -1 & 2) Optional Question Paper

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains 2015: Psychology (Paper -1 & Paper-2) Optional Question Paper

Subject: Psychology (Paper -1 & 2) Optional

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains 2015: Medical Science (Paper -1 & 2) Optional Question Paper

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains 2015: Medical Science (Paper -1 & Paper-2) Optional Question Paper

Subject: Medical Science (Paper -1 & 2) Optional

Exam Date: 23rd December 2015

Medical Science (Paper -1)

1. Answer all of the following (in about 150 words each) : 10x5=50 marks

(a) Describe stomach under the following headings : 1+4+3+2=10 marks

(i) Location
(ii) External features
(iii) Arterial supply
(iv) Clinical anatomy

(b) Give the sequence of events that occurs during transmission of nerve impulse through neuromuscular junction. 10 marks
(c) Differentiate between isometric and isotonic contraction in skeletal muscle. Give one example of each type. 8+2=10 marks
(d) Describe the cervical part of the sympathetic chain. 10 marks
(e) Define ‘clearance’ of a substance by kidneys. Which clearance tests provide an estimate of glomerular filtration rate (GFR)? Explain which of these is the test of choice for assessment of GFR. What is eGFR? 2+3+3+2=10 marks

2.(a) What are the main important functions of pyridoxine (vitamin B6)? Explain. 20 marks
(b) What are the features of innate and acquired immunity? What is the mechanism of action of immunoglobulins? 10+5=15 marks
(c) Describe the projection fibres of cerebrum. 15 marks

3.(a) Define ‘cardiac output’ and ‘cardiac index'. Describe the regulation of cardiac output in the body. 5+15=20 marks
(b) Describe in detail about the origin and distribution of the sciatic nerve. Add a note on its clinical importance. 12+3=15 marks

(c) Discuss briefly : 5x3=15 marks

(i) Vitamin D resistant rickets
(ii) Chromium as a trace element
(iii) Role of plasma enzymes in evaluation of liver function

4.(a) Describe tongue under the following subheadings : 20 marks

(i)Mucous membrane and its nerve supply
(ii) Muscles, movements produced by them and their nerve supply
(iii) Lymphatic drainage
(iv) Clinical anatomy

(b) Name the hormones involved in the regulation of blood glucose level. Discuss the pathophysiology of diabetes mellitus. 5+10=15 marks
(c) Enumerate the hormones of posterior pituitary gland and describe their actions in the body. 15 marks


5. Answer all of the following (in about 150 words each) : 10x5=50 marks

(a) Enumerate the chemical mediators of acute inflammation. Give their mechanisms of action. 3+7=10 marks
(b) Define and classify hypersensitivity. Describe type I hypersensitivity. 10 marks
(c) Discuss the pharmacotherapy of gout. Describe the rationale of the use of colchicine during acute attack of gout. 10 marks
(d) Enumerate the major etiological factors associated with carcinoma of lung. Give the gross, microscopic features and spread of squamous cell carcinoma lung. 3+7=10 marks
(e) A young person of 25 years has sustained smooth barrel shotgun firearm injury on right side of chest. How will you establish on clinical examination the entry wound and distance of fire? 10 marks

6.(a) Give etiopathogenesis of carcinoma cervix. What are the tests employed for diagnosis of carcinoma cervix? Give the stages of carcinoma cervix., 9+6+5=20 marks
(b) Discuss the pharmacology of calcium channel blockers. Enumerate the reasons for combining beta blockers with amlodipine. 15 marks
(c) Discuss morphology and antigenic types of dengue virus. Describe the clinical manifestations and laboratory diagnosis of dengue fever. 15 marks

7.(a) Write hypothetical medicolegal report of an injured person having sustained stab wound penetrating lung deep on right side of chest. 20 marks
(b) A young female has consumed aluminium phosphide. Describe the symptoms, signs and management of such poisoning. 15 marks

(c) Explain why : 5x3=15 marks

(i) Furosemide should not be co-administered with aminoglycoside antibiotics
(ii) Sulfadoxine and pyrimethamine combination is used in the treatment of malaria
(iii) Propranolol is contraindicated in chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

8.(a) Write short notes on the following : 10x2=20 marks

(i) Morphology, life cycle, pathogenicity and laboratory diagnosis of Giardia lamblia 10
(ii) Pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of Candida albicans 10 marks

(b) What are the major and minor criteria of rheumatic fever? Give the pathology and sequelae of rheumatic carditis. 15 marks

(c) Discuss briefly the mechanism of action, uses and side effects of the following : 5x3=15 marks

(i) Sitagliptin
(ii) Clonidine
(iii) INH

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains 2015: Geology (Paper -1 & 2) Optional Question Paper

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains 2015: Geology (Paper -1 & Paper-2) Optional Question Paper

Subject: Geology (Paper -1 & 2) Optional

Exam Date: 23rd December 2015

Geology (Paper -1)


1. Answer the following in about 150 words each : 10x5=50 marks

(a) Discuss the characteristics and properties of the lithosphere and the asthenosphere. 10 marks
(b) Differentiate between panchromatic, multispectral and hyperspectral images. 10 marks
(c) Using neat diagrams, classify and describe drainage patterns. 10  marks
(d) Using neat sketches, describe the types of faults in relation to the orientation of the stress axes.  10 marks
(e) Discuss the geometric relationship between cleavage and folding. 10 marks

2.(a) Describe the types of plate boundaries and comment on the nature of seismicity and volcanism associated with them. 20 marks
(b) Describe the landforms produced by wave erosion and from the sediments deposited by longshore currents. 15 marks
(c) What are tectonites ?. Describe their types and their significance using neat sketches. 15 marks

3.(a) Using appropriate diagrams, describe Ramsay’s classification of folds in detail. 20  marks
(b) Differentiate between the terrestrial and the Jovian planets. 15 marks
(c) Describe various fluvial landforms formed in response to rejuvenation. 15 marks

4.(a) Compare the geomorphic features along the Eastern and Western coasts of India. 20 marks
(b) Discuss the evolution of the foreland basins along the orogenic belts. 15 marks
(c) What is Mohr’s stress diagram? Describe its significance. 15 marks


5. Write notes on the following in about 150 words each: 10 x 5=50 marks

(a) Differentiate between a cast and a real shell. 10 marks
(b) Generation of ‘Megalospheric* and ‘Microspheric’ tests in foraminifera. 10 marks
(c) How Great Boundary Fault’. 10 marks
(d) Buttress dams. 10 marks
(e) Alkali-aggregate reaction. 10 marks

6.(a) What are the essential characters of rocks to be considered as a construction material ? Add a note on aggregates. 20 marks
(b) Give an account of the evolutionary trends in Equidaer 15 marks
(c) Discuss the Maleri Beds, their faunal content and age. 15 marks

7.(a) Define biostratigraphy. How does it differ from lithostratigraphy and chronostratigraphy? Discuss various types of ‘Biozones’. 20 marks
(b) Explain the principle of electrical resistivity method in the exploration of groundwater. Add a note on vertical electrical sounding. ' 15 marks
(c) What is petrifaction ? How does it differ from permineralization ? ' 15 marks

8.(a) What are conodonts and their major types ? Briefly discuss their geological history.  20 marks
(b) Discuss the depositional and climatic conditions during the Siwalik times. 15 marks
(c) Give an account of various types of rainwater harvesting methods. 15 marks

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains 2015: Geography (Paper -1 & 2) Optional Question Paper

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains 2015: Geography (Paper -1 & Paper-2) Optional Question Paper

Subject: Geography (Paper -1 & Paper-2) Optional

Exam Date: 23rd December 2015

Geography (Paper -1)

1. Answer the following in about 150 words each : 10x5=50 marks

(a) Attempt a classification of geomorphic processes from the zonal point of view.
(b) Discuss as to how frontogenesis contributes to weather instability.
(c) Describe the characteristics of different types of pelagic deposits.
(d) Explain the characteristics of ecological succession.
(e) Comment on the impact of environmental education on quality of life.

2.(a) Discuss the contributions of the American School of Subaerial Denudation in geomorphology. 20 marks
(b) What is Potential Evapotranspiration ? Explain how it is used in assessing the water balance in an area. 15 marks
(c) Discuss the methods of conserving biodiversity for sustainable development. 15 marks

3.(a) Discuss the basis of Koppen’s climatic classification. Bring out the salient characteristics of ‘Cs’ type of climate. 20 marks
(b) Explain with examples as to how channel dynamics has been responsible for the development of alluvial fans and cones. 15 marks
(c) Classify soils based on their zonal distribution and describe the characteristics of pedocals. 15 marks

4.(a) Explain the different stages of ecological adaptation of man and bring out the changing balance between man and environment. 20 marks
(b) “Present-day landforms bear more complexity than simplicity.” Elucidate. 15 marks
(c) Explain the meridional circulation of the atmosphere and its importance in world climate. 15 marks


5. Answer the following in about 150 words each : 10x5=50 marks

(a) “The welfare face of geography makes it an inter-disciplinary subject.” Elaborate.
(b) “Energy mix is a step towards sustainability.” Discuss.
(c) Discuss Nelson's method of functional classification of towns.
(d) “Marx’s view on population is more humanistic.” Comment.
(e) “Development planning has a component of environmental cost.” Discuss.

6.(a) “Regional synthesis is the crux of geographical studies.” Elaborate. 20 marks
(b) “Man-induced famines are becoming more common than nature-induced ones.” Comment. 15 marks
(c) Critically examine the theories on population migration. 15 marks

7.(a) Discuss the relevance of Von Thunen’s model on agricultural location in the contemporary context, 20 marks
(b) “Cultural regions are the most suited units to study the diversity of an area.” Comment. 15 marks
(c) Discuss the approaches to the study of behavioural geography. 15 marks

8.(a) “There is a rejuvenation of environmentalism as a paradigm in geographical studies.” Comment. 20 marks
(b) “Geographical traits lead to regional imbalances.” Examine. 15 marks
(c) "Vital statistics are necessary ingredients for development planning.” Elaborate. 15 marks

Geography (Paper -2)

1. Answer all the following. The word limit for (b), (c), (d), (e) has been indicated in the parenthesis : 10x5=50 marks

(a) On the outline map of India provided to you, mark the locations of all the following. Write in your QCA Booklet the significance of these locations, whether physical/commercial/economic/ecological/environmental/cultural, in not more than 30 words for each entity : 2x5=10 marks

(i) Tharangambadi
(ii) Namcha Barwa
(iii) Narcondam
(iv) Khajjiar
(v) Chunchanakatte

(b) Why does the pharmaceutical industry concentrate largely in the western region of the country? (In about 150 words) 10 marks
(c) Explain the pattern of winter rainfall in India. (In about 150 words) 10 marks
(d) Discuss the relationship of watershed approach to village level planning. (In about 150 words) 10 marks
(e) How does natural vegetation affect the formation of in situ soils? (In about 150 words) 10 marks

2.(a) Account for the geographical distribution of groundwater resources of India. How serious is its depletion in recent decades? 20 marks
(b) Why is the traditional crafts industry in India on the decline? 15 marks
(c) Explain how modernization of Indian agriculture is affected by unfavourable institutional factors with suitable examples. 15 marks

3.(a) Distinguish between ‘agricultural productivity' and ‘agricultural efficiency’, and bring out the disparity in regional distribution of agricultural efficiency. 20 marks
(b) With the help of a map, indicate the principal areas of dryland farming in the county and account for farmers' suicides mainly in those areas. 15 marks
(c) Evaluate the contribution of Communication and Information Technology to the development of economy and society, and examine the relevance of the recently launched 'Digital India' programme. 15 marks

4.(a) Account for the growing frequency and intensity of floods in India, and suggest short- and long-term remedial measures indicating the chronically flood-prone areas. 20 marks
(b) How does climate change affect the process of desertification of India? 15 marks
(c) Discuss the scope of replication of ‘White Revolution in India.  15 marks


1. Answer all the following. The word limit for(b), (c), (d), (e) has been indicated in the parenthesis : 10x5=50 marks

(a) On the outline map of India provided to you, mark the locations of all the following. Write in your QCA Booklet the significance of these locations, whether physical / commercial / economic/ecological/environmental / cultural, in not more than 30 words for each entry : 2x5=10 marks

(i) Nokrek
(ii) Gorakhnath Peak
(iii) Indrakiladri Peak
(iv) Polavaram
(v) Anaimudi

(b) “Age-sex pyramid is representative of the history of a region.” Explain. (In about 150 words) 10 marks
(c) "Mono-functional towns are economically vulnerable.” Discuss. (In about 150 words) 10 marks
(d) Explain how change in land use can promote eco-development at different levels in the country. (In about 150 words) 10 marks
(e) Discuss the social and spatial ramifications of increasing longevity. (In about 150 words) 10 marks

6.(a) Decentralized planning through the strengthening of the Panchayat system is the focus of planning in India in recent times. Suggest a blueprint for an integrated regional development plan. 20 marks
(b) In population planning, the thrust of the Government has been ‘planning the population' not ‘plan for the population'. Elaborate. 15 marks
(c) Is planning for a cluster of villages a viable option, when planning for backward areas of the country? Discuss with suitable examples. 15 marks

7.(a) Reduction in regional disparities has been one of the priority goals of national planning in India. How the proposed new Smart urban centres may contribute to the process? 20 marks
(b) How has India’s ‘Look East’ policy taken shape in the past two decades and how it may affect India's external trade? 15 marks
(c) Indian island territories are vulnerable to the sea level rise. Explain. 15 marks

8.(a) Discuss the concept of multi-level planning as practised in India, and explain the implications of 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments in this respect. 20 marks
(b) Give a reasoned account of river water disputes related to the River Krishna. 15 marks
(c) Outline the Government of India’s strategies of conservation of the Western Ghats. 15 marks

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains 2015: Economics (Paper -1 & 2) Optional Question Paper

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains 2015: Economics (Paper -1 & Paper-2) Optional Question Paper

Subject: Economics (Paper -1 & Paper-2) Optional

Exam Date: 23rd December 2015

Economics (Paper-1)


1. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each : 10x5=50 marks

(a) Explain the backward sloping supply curve of labour as a choice between income and leisure.

(b) Under perfect competition, in the short run, find out graphically, without using average cost curve, the conditions in equilibrium for the existence of:-

(i) normal profit
(ii) supernormal profit
(iii) loss.

(c) State Okun’s law and find out the expectations-augmented Phillips curve.
(d) “If the interest elasticity of demand for money is low, the monetarists could predict the real GNP simply by the -use of money supply.” Explain this statement.
(e) Explain repo rate and reverse repo rate. How do changes in the repo rate affect EMIs of borrowers?

2.(a) In what way Kaldor’s model of income distribution is basically a Keynesian theory? 20 marks
(b) Explain how Nash equilibrium provides a solution to the problem of strategic interdependence among firms in an oligopolistic market. 20 marks
(c) How is Kaldor-Hicks compensation principle an improvement over Pareto optimality criterion? What are Scitovsky views in this regard? 10 marks

3.(a) "Under rational expectations hypothesis, systematic monetary policy will be ineffective.” Explain this statement using a suitable model. 20 marks
(b) Show that liquidity preference is neither necessary nor sufficient for the existence of involuntary unemployment in Keynesian system. 20 marks
(c) Derive money multiplier when a part of money supply is exogenous and the other part is endogenous. 10 marks

4.(a) In the event of persistent inflation in an economy, what changes the Central Bank will bring about in:-

(i) reserve ratios
(ii) bank rate
(iii) open market operations? 20  marks

(b) “Subsidies have both positive and negative impacts on the economy.” Explain this statement and illustrate your answer with Indian experience. 20 marks
(c) Explain the meaning and significance of money illusion on the part of workers in the Keynesian theory of employment. 10 marks


5. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each : 10x5=50 marks

  1. Do you think that the root of Harrod’s instability problem lies in the assumption of wage-price rigidity? Give arguments in favour of your answer.

  2. What is ‘immiserizing growth'? How can it be prevented through trade policy interventions?

  3. How does carbon trading help in reducing environmental degradation?

  4. How do depreciation and appreciation in the external value of a currency impact a country’s balance of payments?

  5. “Balanced and unbalanced growth strategies are not substitutes but complementary to each other.” Explain this statement.

6.(a) In the context of a two-country model, derive foreign trade multiplier and explain its working. What will be its repercussion? 20 marks
(b) Distinguish between Monetary union and Economic union. Do the proliferating trading blocks adversely affect the free trade in the world? Give reasons for your answer. 20 marks
(c) What are the advantages and disadvantages of capital mobility for developing countries? 10 marks

7.(a) “As long as the substitution possibilities between foreign and domestic resources are limited, the dual-gap analysis is relevant.” Critically examine this statement. 20 marks

(b) In an economy having two sectors, namely, goods-producing sector and Research and Development (R & D) sector, prove with the help of new growth theory that:-

(i) both capital and aggregate output must grow at the same rate and
(ii) per capita output must grow at the rate of growth of technology. 20 marks

(c) What is indicative planning? In this context, explain how State and markets can play a synergetic role in economic development. 10 marks

8.(a) What do you mean by ‘green accounting*? Discuss how this concept can be incorporated in national income accounting. 10 marks
(b) Discuss the role of renewable energy resources in order to maintain environmental sustainability with special reference to India. 20 marks
(c) “Global warming will certainly increase the cry of the earth and the cry of the poor. In this context, examine the international efforts to reduce global warming. 20 marks

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains 2015: Botany (Paper -1 & Paper-2) Optional Question Paper

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains 2015: Botany (Paper -1 & Paper-2) Optional Question Paper

Subject: Botany (Paper -1 & 2) Optional

Exam Date: 23rd December 2015

Botany (Paper -1)

1. Briefly describe the following in not more than 150 words each : 10x5=50 marks

  1. Role of microbes in soil nutrient cycling 10 marks

  2. Algae as bioindicators  10 marks

  3. Concept of Progymnosperms 10 marks

  4. Chemical nature of viroids and their transmission in plants 10 marks

  5. Evolution of sexual, reproduction in fungi 10 marks

2.(a) Describe the range of vegetative structures with suitable diagrams in volvocales and their phylogenetic relationships. 20 marks
(b) Describe the disease symptoms, causal organism and the control measures of the loose smut of wheat. 15 marks
(c) Draw well labelled diagram of the L.S. of Anthoceros sporophyte. Discuss the evolutionary significance of Anthoceros also. 8+7=15 marks

3.(a) Draw well labelled diagram of the T.S. of Teleutosorus of Puccinia and give a brief description of the same. 15 marks
(b) Describe the symptoms, causal organism and the control measures of white rust of crucifers. 15 marks
(c) Discuss the distribution of living Gymnosperms in India and their economic importance. 20 marks

4.(a) Give the name of the causal organism, disease symptoms and disease control measures of the following :

Red rot of sugarcane and  Late blight of potato  12.5+12.5=25 marks
(b) Give an account of sexual fruiting bodies in Ascomycetes. 15 marks
(c) Describe the method of vegetative reproduction in Bryophytes. 10 marks


5. Describe the following in about 150 words each; 10x5=50 marks

  1. Mycotoxins 10  marks

  2. Concept of totipotency in higher plants 10 marks

  3. Dye yielding plants  10 marks

  4. Ethnobotanical knowledge and beliefs in species conservation 10 marks

  5. Use of somaclonal variations in crop improvement 10 marks

6.(a) Write an account of the following families with respect to floral structures. Give the botanical names of three important plant species belonging to each of the families and specify their uses :

 Ranunculaceae and  Fabaceae  10+10=20 marks

(b) Discuss the components of a full-fledged Botanical garden. 15 marks
(c) Give an account of misappropriation and its utility towards ex-situ conservation of rare and endangered plants. 15 marks

7.(a)  Describe the oil yielding plants of India and their economic importance. 12.5 marks
(b) Distinguish the Androecium of Malvaceae, Asteraceae and Asclepiadaceae from each other. 12.5 marks
7.(c) “Somatic hybrids can be characterized by a variety of methods.” Substantiate the above statement.  12.5 marks
(d) Compare the floral characters of the family Solanaceae and Malvaceae.  12.5 marks

8.(a) Give an account of Vavilov’s “Centres of Origin” of the cultivated plants. 17 marks
(b)Describe the method of production of Androgenic haploids. 17 marks
(c) Describe the anomalous secondary growth in monocots with suitable diagram. 16 marks

Botany (Paper -2)


1. Explain the following :— 10x5-50 marks

  1. Mitochondria 10 marks

  2. Extrinsic and Intrinsic proteins 10 marks

  3. Genetic code 10 marks

  4. Hybrid vigour 10 marks

  5. Self-incompatibility. 10 marks

2.(a) Distinguish between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell. 15 marks
(b) Discuss briefly the evidence of organic evolution. 15 marks
(c) Describe briefly the various methods of gene transfer. 20 marks

3.(a) Describe the structure, behaviour and significance of special types of chromosomes. 15 marks
(b) What is the role of RNA in the origin and evolution of living organisms ? 20 marks
(c) Describe the method of developing disease and insect resistant varieties through back cross method of breeding crop varieties. 15 marks

4.(a) Describe the numerical variation in chromosomes. 15 marks
(b) What is the biochemical and molecular basis of mutations ? 20 marks
(c) Discuss briefly the mechanism of disease resistance. 15 marks


5. Explain the following :— 10x5=50 marks

  1. ATP synthase 10 marks

  2. Senescence 10 marks

  3. Conservation of biodiversity 10 marks

  4. Species based mechanism of invasion 10 marks

  5. Mainstream forms of renewable energy. 10 marks

6.(a) Describe the process of biological nitrogen fixation with special emphasis on nitrogenase. 15+5 marks
(b) Discuss the principal systems of environmental pollution and the reasons thereof. 15 marks
(c) Describe different sub-mitochondrial complexes associated with electron transport chain of aerobic respiration. 15 marks

7.(a) Enumerate the salient features of water relations in crop plants. 15 marks
(b) What are the characteristics of phytochrome induced responses in flowering of higher plants ? How do they control flowering ? 10+5 marks
(c) Distinguish between natural and social forests. Discuss in detail the various objectives of social forestry. 5+15 marks

8.(a) Describe the mechanism of C02 fixation in CAM plants. 15 marks
(b) Describe any four principal phytogeographical regions of India. 15 marks
(c) Discuss the various advantages and limitations of phytoremediation. 20 marks

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains 2015: Anthropology (Paper -1 & 2) Optional Question Paper

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains 2015: Anthropology (Paper -1 & Paper -2) Optional Question Paper

Subject: Anthropology (Paper -1 & 2) Optional

Exam Date: 23rd December 2015

Anthropology (Paper -1)


1. Write notes on the following in about 150 words each : 5x10=50 marks

(a) Archaeological Anthropology.  10 marks
(b) Society and Culture  10 marks
(c) Incest Taboos.  10 marks
(d) Horticulture.  10 marks
(e) Historical Particularism. 10 marks

2.(a) Elucidate the biological and cultural factors in Human Evolution.  15 marks
(b) How did Morgan explain the evolution of marriage, family and Socio-Political organization, and how did other evolutionists disagree with his explanation ? 20 marks
(c) How do diffusionism and evolutionism differ as explanations of Culture Change ? 15 marks

3.(a) Define family and critically examine the universality of family. 15  marks
(b) How do you relate the concepts of 'Sacred' and 'Profane' in Durkheim's theory of religion with a focus on the role of totem ? 15 marks
(c) Explain the basic features of 'Postmodernism' in Anthropology. 20 marks

4.(a) Critically examine the Formalists' and Substantivists' views on the applicability of economic laws in the study of primitive societies. 20 marks
(b) Explain the difference between emic and etic, and how does the difference derive from the study of language ? 10 marks
(e) What made Geertz's Interpretive Anthropology distinct from Turner's Symbolic Anthropology ? What does each of them mean by the terms Symbol' and 'Symbolic’ ? 20 marks


5. Write notes on the following in about 150 words each :- 10x5=50 marks

(a) Palaeolithic culture. 10 marks
(b) Down's Syndrome. 10 marks
(c) Longitudinal method of studying growth.  10 marks
(d) Menopause and its impact. 10 marks
(e) DNA technology in Medicine. 10 marks

6.(a) Describe the salient characteristics and geographical distribution of Homo erectus.  20 marks
(b) Critically examine Darwin's theory of evolution in understanding evolution. 15 marks
(c) Discuss chromosomal aberrations in man illustrating with examples. 15 marks

7.(a) What is an anthropometric somatotype ? Describe Health and Carter's method of somatotyping. 20 marks
(b) Critically examine the physiological responses and acclimatization to cold climate in Man. 15 marks
(c) Elucidate the role of Anthropology in selection and monitoring of sports persons. 15 marks

8.(a) Forensic Science can help in criminal investigations. Discuss. 20 marks
(b) Define genetic polymorphism. Give details of its types with suitable examples. 15 marks
(c) What do you understand by Immunogenetics ? Explain with suitable examples. 15 marks

Anthropology (Paper -2)


1. Write short notes on the following in about 150 words each : 10x5=50 marks

(a) Relevance of tribal Panchsheel today
(b) Sacred complex as a dimension of Indian civilization
(c) South Indian Paleoliths
(d) Panchayati Raj Institutions and Social Change
(e) Rights over resources and tribal unrest

2.(a) Examine the social implications of media and communication technology.  20 marks
(b) Briefly describe the classical models of ethnic and linguistic classification of Indian population. Discuss its relevance today. 15 marks
(c) Discuss the problems faced by religious minorities in India. 15 marks

3.(a) Discuss how constitutional provisions in India have built-in mechanisms for dealing with the problem of land alienation in tribal areas. 20 marks
(b) Discuss the impact of Hinduism on the status of tribal women in Central India. 15 marks
(c) Describe the paleoanthropological fossil finds from Siwalik hills. Examine the contribution of Siwalik fossils to paleoanthropological knowledge. 15 marks

4.(a) Critically examine the concept of communalism and its relevance for multireligious and multiethnic polity of India. 20 marks
(b) Examine in detail the role of anthropology in planning for tribal development. 15 marks
(c) Critically compare 'Affirmative Action' of USA and 'Protective Discrimination' for Scheduled Tribes in India. 15 marks


5. Write short notes on the following in about 150 words each : 10x5=50 marks

(a) Prehistoric Rock Art of Central India
(b) Islam and Matriliny
(c) Socioeconomic characteristics of shifting cultivator
(d) Elwin-Ghurye Debate on Tribes
(e) Role of Governor in Fifth Schedule Areas

6.(a) Examine the contribution of village studies towards the understanding of Indian social system. 20 marks
(b) Discuss the impact of globalization on village economy in India. 15 marks
(c) Discuss the significance of Harappan Civilization sites from India. 15 marks

7.(a) Recently non-government organizations have been critiqued for interfering with developmental process in tribal heartland ! Critically comment. 20 marks
(b) Discuss the nature of social change in tribal India under the impact of developmental programmes. 15 marks
(c) Discuss the contribution of M. N. Srinivas to the study of Indian society. Examine the influence of British social anthropologists on his ideas. 15 marks

8.(a) What do you understand by dynamics of caste mobility? How did the concept of Sanskritization contribute to its functionality? 20 marks
(b) Critically examine the concept of tribe-caste continuum and its relevance in contemporary India. 15 marks
(c) Discuss the sociocultural, economic and psychological constraints responsible for low literacy in tribal areas. 15 marks

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains 2015: Animal Husbandry & Veterinary Science (Paper -1 & 2) Optional Question Paper

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains 2015: Animal Husbandry &
Veterinary Science (Paper -1 & Paper-2) Optional Question Paper

Subject: Animal Husbandry & Veterinary Science (Paper -1 &  Paper-2) Optional

Exam Date: 23rd December 2015

Animal Husbandry & Veterinary Science (Paper -1)


1. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each : 10x5=50 marks

(a) What are the feeding habits of goats? Enlist the common feeds and fodders for goats.
(b) Discuss the methods for estimation of protein requirements for maintenance of bullocks,
(c) What is third messenger concept?  Why and how is uric acid formed in birds?
(d) Write the general functions of blood in animal body.
(e) Name three diluters along with their properties and composition for cryopreservation of cattle bull semen.

2.(a) Differentiate between the following :  15 marks

(i) Starch equivalent and Net energy
(ii) Crude protein and True protein
(iii) Cellulose and Starch
(iv) Digestible energy and Metabolizable energy
(v) Concentrates and Roughages

(b) What do you understand by spermatogenesis and spermiogenesis? Discuss the factors affecting the semen quality in buffaloes. 20 marks
(c) What do you mean by electrocardiogram? Discuss in brief about cardiac cycle and heartbeat. 15 marks

3.(a) Enumerate the water-soluble vitamins. Write the coenzymes or prosthetic groups and enzymic or other functions of B vitamins. Write the functions and deficiency symptoms of vitamin E in poultry. 25 marks
(b) A radiolabelled non-toxic particle was injected I/V into right foreleg of an adult dog. After a while, it was detected in the left foreleg. Indicate how the particle reached to the left foreleg. Support your answer with arrow diagram. 15 marks
(c) Explain how high ambient temperature affects the productivity of animals. 10 marks

4.(a) A buffalo is grazing on a pasture. How can the feed intake of that buffalo be predicted? 15 marks
(b) Compute a ration for a dairy cow weighing 400 kg and yielding 10 kg of milk with 4% fat from wheat straw (0% DCP and 40% TDN), green berseem (2% DCP and 12% TDN) limited to 15 kg and concentrate mixture (12% DCP and 70% TDN). The maintenance requirement is 250 g DCP and 3 kg TDN, whereas the requirement for 1 kg milk production is 45 g DCP and 300 g TDN. | 15 marks
(c) Name the hormones secreted from pituitary gland. Discuss the role of pituitary gland in regulation of oestrous cycle in bovine. 20 marks


5. Explain the following (in about 150 words each) :  10x5=50 marks

(a) Chromosomal aberrations
(b) Traits of economic importance
(c) Guidelines to feed high yielder cows
(d) Organizations providing extension services in India
(e) Sib selection

6.(a) Write about the preliminary idea of heritability. Give different methods of estimation and write how these estimates are utilized in formation of breeding/selection plans. 25 marks
(b) What could be the delayed consequences of natural disasters? 15 marks
(c) Explain the role of veterinarian extension worker in livestock health and development. 10 marks

7.(a) What feeding practices are suggested for adult female pigs?  15 marks
(b) Why is evaluation of extension programme needed and what different types of evaluations are done? 15 marks
(c) How can the efficiency of progeny testing programme be improved? 10 marks
(d) How will you improve the reproductive efficiency at your farm during summer season? 10 marks

8.(a) What different systems of brooding are being practised in poultry? How would you prepare a brooder house to receive chicks? 20 marks
(b) Discuss genetic and phenotypic effects of inbreeding. 15 marks
(c) What are combining abilities? Give diagrammatic plan for utilizing combining ability. 15 marks

Animal Husbandry & Veterinary Science (Paper -2)


1. Write notes on the following in about 150 words each : 10x5=50 marks

(a) Disease prevention and disease-free zones
(b) Anatomical structures and formation of egg in hen
(c) Occupational zoonotic diseases in meat handlers
(d) Sanitation requirements for clean and safe milk production
(e) Irradiation preservation of meat

2.(a) Write about the major air pollutants in the vicinity of industrial areas and their effects on animal health and production. 20 marks
(b) What are the advantages of value addition in meat ? Describe the steps involved in the processing of cooked sausages. 20 marks
(c) Discuss the socio-economic impact of zoonotic diseases on public health. 10 marks

3.(a) What are the problems and challenges in the control and eradication of infectious diseases of livestock and poultry? 20 marks
(b) Write the etiology, pathogenesis and clinical manifestations of Equine myoglobinuria. 15 marks
(c) Differentiate between local, general and regional anesthesia. Indicate the sites of operation and organs involved during castration of dogs. 15 marks

4.(a) What is U.H.T. processing of milk? How do we achieve commercial sterility in aseptic packaging of milk? 20 marks
(b) What do you mean by drug bioavailability ? Elaborate the procedure for developing a newer drug.  20 marks
(c) Compare the physical and sensory properties of buffalo and cow milk khoa. 10 marks


5. Discuss the following in about 150 words each : 10x5=50 marks

(a) Role of enzymatic reactivators in organo-phosphorus poisoning in dairy animals
(b) Connective tissue cells and immunoregulation
(c) Pathogenesis and control measures of post-parturient haemoglobinuria in cows
(d) Various approaches for utilization of whey
(e) Organ products for food and pharmaceuticals

6.(a) How are case-control and cohort studies useful in epidemiological disease investigation ? Explain their application in the study of infectious diseases. 20 marks
(b) Write about the etiology, epidemiology, pathogenesis, clinical findings, diagnosis and control of leptospirosis in livestock. 20 marks
(c) Discuss how disease transmission occurs at ecological interfaces. 10 marks

7.(a) What are the advantages of canning of meat products ? Detail the various steps in traditional.canning.  20 marks
(b) Discuss the management of fore-stomach disorders in ruminants.  20 marks
(c) Explain the role of public health veterinarian in relation to meat hygiene. 10 marks

8.(a) Discuss the latest national guidelines on post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) in suspected rabid dog bites in humans. 20  marks
(b) Describe the various quality characteristics and storage conditions of fresh meat. 20 marks
(c) How does Landscape epidemiology help in disease predictions ? 10 marks

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains 2015: Agriculture (Paper -1 & 2) Optional Question Paper

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains 2015: Agriculture (Paper -1 & 2) Optional Question Paper

Subject: Agriculture (Paper -1 & 2) Optional

Exam Date: 23rd December 2015

Agriculture (Paper-1)


1. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each : 10x5=50 marks

(a) Why is watershed management important in dryland agriculture ?
(b) How is soil erosion caused ?
(c) Discuss the farm management problems in the Indian context.
(d) How is ‘contract farming' playing an important role in agrifood chain in the Indian context ?
(e) How are the agro-climatic zones determined ?

2.(a) Elaborate the environmental pollutions along with the role of afforestation in minimizing their effects. 20 marks
(b) Discuss about the factors affecting the efficacy of herbicides. 20 marks
(c) How does soil acidity affect the crops ? 10 marks

(3) Differentiate and elaborate the following: 10x5=50 marks

(a) Integrated nutrient management and Integrated pest management
(b) Intensive agriculture and Sustainable agriculture
(c) Agroforestry and Agrostology
(d) Frontline demonstration and Method demonstration
(e) Lime requirement and Leaching requirement

4.(a) Discuss nitrogen transformation and its management in submerged soil for rice production. 20 marks
(b) Write about the needs and techniques of forage conservation.  15 marks
(c) Write the approaches of biological weed control with suitable examples. 15 marks


5. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each : 10x5=50

(a) Describe the agricultural regions of India.
(b) What benefits are derived from organic matter in soil ?
(c) Elaborate the problems of residual toxicity of herbicide and its management.
(d) Detail the role of co-operative marketing.
(e) What is the importance of Krishi Vigyan Kendra (KVK) in the context of rural livelihood ?

6.(a) Give the criteria of essentiality of plant nutrients. List the essential mineral elements required in plant nutrition. State the principal functions of N, P, K, Ca, Mg and S. 20 marks
(b) Write the concept of soil moisture constraints. Write the role and availability of moisture to plants. 15 marks
(c) Explain multiple cropping, its significance and constraints experienced by farmers. 15 marks

7.(a) Is curing in tobacco beneficial ? Describe the various curing processes adopted in tobacco growing regions of India. 20 marks
(b) Explain El Nino effect, its causes and impact on Indian agriculture.  15 marks
(c) Why is Broad Based Extension (BBE) multidirectional ? What difficulties arise in its implementation ? 15 marks

8.(a) Elaborate the ways to increase fertilizer use efficiency. 20 marks
(b) Why is crop diversification more beneficial than traditional monoculture system? 20 marks
(c) Compare direct seeding and transplanting of rice. 10 marks

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains 2015: Philosophy (Paper -1 & 2) Optional Question Paper

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains 2015: Philosophy (Paper -1 & Paper-2) Optional Question Paper

Subject: Philosophy (Paper -1 & 2) Optional

Exam Date: 23rd December 2015


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